1. Considering the acoustings of buildings, the ratio of length to width
may be kept as
(A) 1.80 to 1.50
(B) 1.20 to 1.00
(C) 1.50 to 1.30
(D) 1.40 to 1.30
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1.20 to 1.00
(C) 1.50 to 1.30
(D) 1.40 to 1.30
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
2. Sabine’s formula for Reverberation time
T = Reverberation time in seconds
V = Volume of room in m3
A = Total absorbing power of surface in the room
T = Reverberation time in seconds
V = Volume of room in m3
A = Total absorbing power of surface in the room
(A) \huge T=0.16\frac{V}{A}
(B) \huge T=0.18\frac{V}{A}
(C) \huge T=0.25\frac{V}{A}
(D) \huge T=0.15\frac{V}{A}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge T=0.18\frac{V}{A}
(C) \huge T=0.25\frac{V}{A}
(D) \huge T=0.15\frac{V}{A}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
3. Floor Area Ratio means
(A) The floor area of building/Land area
(B) The floor area of building × Land area
(C) The floor area of building + Land area
(D) Land area/The floor area of building
(E) Answer not known
(B) The floor area of building × Land area
(C) The floor area of building + Land area
(D) Land area/The floor area of building
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
4. In the context of Town Planning the bye law must be revised in every
(A) 5 – 10 years
(B) 10 – 15 years
(C) 15 – 20 years
(D) 20 – 25 years
(E) Answer not known
(B) 10 – 15 years
(C) 15 – 20 years
(D) 20 – 25 years
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
5. The apex line of a sloping roof is called
(A) hip
(B) ridge
(C) valley
(D) eaves
(E) Answer not known
(B) ridge
(C) valley
(D) eaves
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
6. Providing alternating courses of all headers and all stretchers in
the construction of brick masonry is designated as
(A) English bond
(B) Single Flemish bond
(C) Double Flemish bond
(D) Zig-zag bond
(E) Answer not known
(B) Single Flemish bond
(C) Double Flemish bond
(D) Zig-zag bond
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
7. Choose the correct statements from the following: An ideal damp
proofing material
(I) should remain in its position without any movements
(II) be pervious and durable
(III) should be capable of resisting both dead and superimposed loads
(I) should remain in its position without any movements
(II) be pervious and durable
(III) should be capable of resisting both dead and superimposed loads
(A) only (I) is correct
(B) (I) and (II) are correct
(C) (I) and (III) are correct
(D) (II) and (III) are correct
(E) Answer not known
(B) (I) and (II) are correct
(C) (I) and (III) are correct
(D) (II) and (III) are correct
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
8. When two walls meet each other at angle other than right angle,
—————— is formed.
(A) Squint junction
(B) Obtuse angle quoins
(C) Cross junction
(D) Acute angle quoins
(E) Answer not known
(B) Obtuse angle quoins
(C) Cross junction
(D) Acute angle quoins
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
9. The length of the original brick is cut at its mid, the portion
obtained is termed as
(A) Bat
(B) Bevelled bat
(C) Half bat
(D) Bevelled half bat
(E) Answer not known
(B) Bevelled bat
(C) Half bat
(D) Bevelled half bat
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
10. Effects of cold weather in concrete depends on,
(A) Freezing and thawing
(B) Rapid rate of hydration
(C) Reduced relative humidity
(D) Greater plastic shrinkage
(E) Answer not known
(B) Rapid rate of hydration
(C) Reduced relative humidity
(D) Greater plastic shrinkage
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
11. Separation of water on the fresh concrete is called
(A) curing
(B) hydration
(C) segregation
(D) bleeding
(E) Answer not known
(B) hydration
(C) segregation
(D) bleeding
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
12. To find workability of concrete, the test used is
(A) Slump test
(B) Specific gravity test
(C) Gradation test
(D) Soundness test
(E) Answer not known
(B) Specific gravity test
(C) Gradation test
(D) Soundness test
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
13. When brick work is set with a fine joint, it is usual to fill the
interior joints with a thin liquid mortar. This process is called
(A) Grouting
(B) Layering
(C) Brick laying
(D) Trap bond work
(E) Answer not known
(B) Layering
(C) Brick laying
(D) Trap bond work
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
14. For stones, Mohs scale is used to determine
(A) Hardness
(B) Flakiness index
(C) Durability
(D) Toughness index
(E) Answer not known
(B) Flakiness index
(C) Durability
(D) Toughness index
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
15. Total percentage of water by weight of cement required for
completing the chemical reaction in concrete
(A) 21%
(B) 23%
(C) 38%
(D) 40%
(E) Answer not known
(B) 23%
(C) 38%
(D) 40%
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
16. The fineness moduli of fine and coarse aggregates used in a concrete
mix are respectively 3.05 and 6.93. If the desired fineness modules of
combined aggregate is 5.3, find the proportion of fine aggregate to the
combined aggregate, by weight
(A) 73.02%
(B) 72.50%
(C) 72.23%
(D) 53.44%
(E) Answer not known
(B) 72.50%
(C) 72.23%
(D) 53.44%
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
17. The percentage of carbon in steel is
(A) 0.01% to 1%
(B) 0.1% to 0.2%
(C) 1% to 3%
(D) 2% to 4.5%
(E) Answer not known
(B) 0.1% to 0.2%
(C) 1% to 3%
(D) 2% to 4.5%
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
18. Match the List I (Equipment) with List II (Purpose) and select the
correct answer:
| Equipment (List I) | Function (List II) |
|---|---|
| (A) Agitating truck | 1. Quarrying |
| (B) Hoe | 2. Compacting |
| (C) Derric pole | 3. Hoisting |
| (D) Sheep foot roller | 4. Transporting |
(A) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
(B) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
(C) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
(D) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(E) Answer not known
(B) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
(C) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
(D) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
19. Which of the following property of Bitumen is determined using Ring
and Ball Apparatus?
(A) Penetration
(B) Viscosity
(C) Softening point
(D) Ductility
(E) Answer not known
(B) Viscosity
(C) Softening point
(D) Ductility
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
20. Mixture of crushed stone and clay with water is
(A) Slurry
(B) Paste
(C) Slag
(D) Soil mixture
(E) Answer not known
(B) Paste
(C) Slag
(D) Soil mixture
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
21. In a consolidation test on Clayey sample, the void ratio decreased
from 1.20 to 1.10, when applied pressure was increased from 0.25 to 0.50
kg/cm2. The coefficient of compressibility of the clay (in
cm2/kg) is
(A) 0.4
(B) 2.5
(C) 0.1
(D) 0.25
(E) Answer not known
(B) 2.5
(C) 0.1
(D) 0.25
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
22. Match the items in List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the list:
| Mineral Compound (List I) | Characteristic (List II) |
|---|---|
| A. Alite | 1. Initial set, high heat of hydration |
| B. Belite | 2. Flash set, generates less heat |
| C. Celite | 3. Increases resistance to freezing and thawing |
| D. Felite | 4. Decreases resistance to freezing and thawing |
(A) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
(B) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(C) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(D) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
(E) Answer not known
(B) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(C) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(D) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
23. The collapse load of a simply supported beam of span L and fully
plastic moment Mp subjected to central concentrated load is
given by
(A) \huge \frac{4M_p}{L}
(B) \huge \frac{6M_p}{L}
(C) \huge \frac{8M_p}{L}
(D) \huge \frac{2M_p}{L}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{6M_p}{L}
(C) \huge \frac{8M_p}{L}
(D) \huge \frac{2M_p}{L}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
24. Number of plastic hinges necessary for collapse of the structure if
the degree of indeterminacy of the structure ‘n’ is
(A) n
(B) n + 3
(C) n + 2
(D) n + 1
(E) Answer not known
(B) n + 3
(C) n + 2
(D) n + 1
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
25. The unit load method used in structural analysis is
(A) Applicable only to statically indeterminate structures
(B) Derived from Castigliano’s theorem
(C) Derived from the principle of virtual work
(D) An extension of Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem
(E) Answer not known
(B) Derived from Castigliano’s theorem
(C) Derived from the principle of virtual work
(D) An extension of Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
26. The maximum value for influence line for horizontal thrust of a two
hinged parabolic arch of span ‘l’ and rise ‘h’ will be,
(A) \huge \frac{h}{4}
(B) \huge \frac{h}{2}
(C) \huge \frac{25l}{128h}
(D) \huge \frac{1}{3}\frac{h}{L}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{h}{2}
(C) \huge \frac{25l}{128h}
(D) \huge \frac{1}{3}\frac{h}{L}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
27. Elements of the flexibility matrix are
(A) Displacement
(B) Force
(C) Load
(D) Moment
(E) Answer not known
(B) Force
(C) Load
(D) Moment
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
28. Assertion [A]: Influence Line Diagram (ILD) for SF at the fixed end
of a cantilever and SFD due to unit load at the free end are same.
Reason [R]: ILD for BM at the fixed end of a cantilever and BMD due to unit load of the free end are same. According to the coding system given above
Reason [R]: ILD for BM at the fixed end of a cantilever and BMD due to unit load of the free end are same. According to the coding system given above
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of
[A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is true but [R] is false
(D) [A] is false but [R] is true
(E) Answer not known
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is true but [R] is false
(D) [A] is false but [R] is true
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
29. A three hinged arch is
(A) Determinate
(B) Indeterminate
(C) Unstable
(D) Stable
(E) Answer not known
(B) Indeterminate
(C) Unstable
(D) Stable
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a, d
30. A two hinged semicircular arch of radius R carries a concentrated
load ‘W’ at the crown. The horizontal thrust
(A) \huge \frac{W}{2\pi}
(B) \huge \frac{W}{\pi}
(C) \huge \frac{2W}{3\pi}
(D) \huge \frac{4W}{3\pi}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{W}{\pi}
(C) \huge \frac{2W}{3\pi}
(D) \huge \frac{4W}{3\pi}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
31. A fixed arch is a statically indeterminate structure to
(A) First degree
(B) Second degree
(C) Third degree
(D) Fourth degree
(E) Answer not known
(B) Second degree
(C) Third degree
(D) Fourth degree
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
32. Parabolic two-hinged arch having supports at same level having span
‘l’ and rise ‘h’ every section is subjected to only
(A) Bending Moment
(B) Normal Thrust
(C) Shear force
(D) Torsion
(E) Answer not known
(B) Normal Thrust
(C) Shear force
(D) Torsion
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
33. Match List I with List II in question and select the correct answer
by using codes given below:
| Euler Load Formula (List I) | Condition of End Restraint (List II) |
|---|---|
| A. \frac{4\pi^2EI}{L^2} | 1. Pin-ended at both ends |
| B. \frac{\pi^2EI}{4L^2} | 2. Fixed at one end and pinned at the other end |
| C. \frac{\pi^2EI}{L^2} | 3. Fixed at both ends |
| D. \frac{2\pi^2EI}{L^2} | 4. Fixed at one end and free at the other end |
(A) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
(B) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
(C) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(D) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
(E) Answer not known
(B) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
(C) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(D) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
34. The moment required to rotate the near end of a prismatic beam
through unit angle without translation, when the far end is fixed, is
(A) \huge \frac{EI}{L}
(B) \huge \frac{2EI}{L}
(C) \huge \frac{3EI}{L}
(D) \huge \frac{4EI}{L}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{2EI}{L}
(C) \huge \frac{3EI}{L}
(D) \huge \frac{4EI}{L}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
35. A fixed beam, with span ‘‘L’’, is subjected to clockwise moment
‘M0’ at L/4 from left end and anticlockwise moment
‘‘M0’’ at L/4 from right end. The fixed moments will be
(A) Zero
(B) M0
(C) M0/2
(D) 2M0
(E) Answer not known
(B) M0
(C) M0/2
(D) 2M0
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
36. Distribution factor for an overhanging beam for cantilever portion
is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.0
(D) 2.0
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.0
(D) 2.0
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
37. A parabolic arch will not have bending moment due to uniformly
distributed load since it is subjected to
(A) pure compression
(B) partly compression and partly tension
(C) pure tension
(D) pure shear
(E) Answer not known
(B) partly compression and partly tension
(C) pure tension
(D) pure shear
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
38. The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic
isotropic and homogeneous material is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) Answer not known
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
39. Which of the following methods of structural analysis is force
method?
(A) slope deflection
(B) column analogy
(C) moment distribution
(D) conjugate beam
(E) Answer not known
(B) column analogy
(C) moment distribution
(D) conjugate beam
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
40. Central dip of suspension cable will be –————— of Horizontal span.
(A) \huge \frac{1}{10}\ to\frac{1}{15}
(B) \huge \frac{1}{5\ }\ to\frac{1}{10}
(C) \huge \frac{1}{15}\ to\frac{1}{20}
(D) \huge \frac{1}{20}\ to\frac{1}{25}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{1}{5\ }\ to\frac{1}{10}
(C) \huge \frac{1}{15}\ to\frac{1}{20}
(D) \huge \frac{1}{20}\ to\frac{1}{25}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
41. The acceptable noise level for residential and business urban areas
is
(A) 25 dB to 35 dB
(B) 35 dB to 45 dB
(C) 60 dB to 70 dB
(D) 40 dB to 50 dB
(E) Answer not known
(B) 35 dB to 45 dB
(C) 60 dB to 70 dB
(D) 40 dB to 50 dB
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
42. Select the correct statements about carbon monoxide.
(A) Respiration leads to laziness, reduced vision and death
(B) Causes chlorosis, plasmolysis, damage to mucous membrane and metabolic inhibition
(C) Causes hyper tension and death
(D) Heart attack and Stroke
(E) Answer not known
(B) Causes chlorosis, plasmolysis, damage to mucous membrane and metabolic inhibition
(C) Causes hyper tension and death
(D) Heart attack and Stroke
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
43. What is noise?
(A) Desirable sound
(B) Desirable and unwanted sound
(C) Undesirable and unwanted sound
(D) Undesirable and wanted sound
(E) Answer not known
(B) Desirable and unwanted sound
(C) Undesirable and unwanted sound
(D) Undesirable and wanted sound
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
44. A wastewater sample diluted to 100 times with aeration water had
initial DO of 7.0 mg/L and after 5 days of incubation at 20°C, the DO
was zero. The BOD of wastewater is
(A) 700 mg/L
(B) 100 mg/L
(C) 7 mg/L
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) Answer not known
(B) 100 mg/L
(C) 7 mg/L
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
45. Electro Static Precipitators (ESP) are used as a pollution control
device for the separation of
(A) SO2
(B) NOx
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Particulate matter
(E) Answer not known
(B) NOx
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Particulate matter
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
46. The F/M (Food/Micro organism) ratio is controlled in the activated
sludge process by adjusting the
(A) Flow rate
(B) Volume of aeration tank
(C) Amount of sludge wasting
(D) BOD
(E) Answer not known
(B) Volume of aeration tank
(C) Amount of sludge wasting
(D) BOD
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
47. The permissible maximum annual average concentration of SO2
for residential area as equal to
(A) 50 μg /m3
(B) 60 μg /m3
(C) 70 μg /m3
(D) 80 μg /m3
(E) Answer not known
(B) 60 μg /m3
(C) 70 μg /m3
(D) 80 μg /m3
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
48. By aerobic decomposition of sewage which set of the compounds are
released/generated
(A) \huge NO_3^-,\ SO_4^{2-},\ CO_2\ and\ H_2O
(B) \huge CO_2,\ H_2O,\ CH_4\ and\ NO_3^-
(C) \huge H_2O,\ SO_4^{2-},\ CO_2\ and\ H_2S
(D) \huge CO_2,\ H_2O,\ NH_3\ and\ CH_4
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge CO_2,\ H_2O,\ CH_4\ and\ NO_3^-
(C) \huge H_2O,\ SO_4^{2-},\ CO_2\ and\ H_2S
(D) \huge CO_2,\ H_2O,\ NH_3\ and\ CH_4
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
49. A Manhole is classified as shallow if its depth is between
(A) 0.4 to 0.5 m
(B) 0.5 to 0.7 m
(C) 0.7 to 0.9 m
(D) 0.9 to 1.20 m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 0.5 to 0.7 m
(C) 0.7 to 0.9 m
(D) 0.9 to 1.20 m
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
50. Entry of biodegradable organics into wastewater is due to
(A) Domestic waste
(B) Industrial waste
(C) Both [A] and [B]
(D) Infiltration from surrounding wells
(E) Answer not known
(B) Industrial waste
(C) Both [A] and [B]
(D) Infiltration from surrounding wells
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
51. Dissolved oxygen concentration may fall to zero, causing anaerobic
condition in a river reach called
(A) Zone of degradation
(B) Zone of active decomposition
(C) Zone of recovery
(D) Zone of zero DO
(E) Answer not known
(B) Zone of active decomposition
(C) Zone of recovery
(D) Zone of zero DO
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
52. The uniformity co-efficient \huge \left(\frac{D_{60}}{D_{10}}\right) for
the filter media in slow sand filter is
(A) 1.3
(B) 1.75
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1.75
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
53. Settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank does not
depend on
(A) Depth of tank
(B) Size of particle
(C) Temperature of the liquid
(D) Specific gravity of the particle
(E) Answer not known
(B) Size of particle
(C) Temperature of the liquid
(D) Specific gravity of the particle
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
54. Intermittent system of distribution of water is desirable because it
may leads to
(A) Low operation and maintenance cost
(B) Lower consumption of water
(C) Maintenance of good water quality
(D) People feel more comfortable with this system
(E) Answer not known
(B) Lower consumption of water
(C) Maintenance of good water quality
(D) People feel more comfortable with this system
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
55. Which type of filter is most effective in the removal of
micro-organisms from water?
(A) Rapid sand filters
(B) Pressure sand filters
(C) Slow sand filters
(D) Upflow filters
(E) Answer not known
(B) Pressure sand filters
(C) Slow sand filters
(D) Upflow filters
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
56. The recommended maximum total dissolved solids level of drinking
water
(A) 1000 mg/L
(B) 100 mg/L
(C) 500 mg/L
(D) 200 mg/L
(E) Answer not known
(B) 100 mg/L
(C) 500 mg/L
(D) 200 mg/L
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
57. The equation governing ground water flow through sand filter is
(A) \huge Q=KA\left(\frac{dh}{dL}\right)
(B) \huge Q=KA\left(\frac{dL}{dh}\right)
(C) \huge Q=\frac{dh}{dL}
(D) \huge Q=KA
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge Q=KA\left(\frac{dL}{dh}\right)
(C) \huge Q=\frac{dh}{dL}
(D) \huge Q=KA
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
58. The formula of hydraulic gradient for transmission is
(A) \huge \frac{h_2-h_1}{L}
(B) \huge \frac{h_1-h_2}{L}
(C) \huge \frac{h_1+h_2}{L}
(D) \huge \frac{2h}{L}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{h_1-h_2}{L}
(C) \huge \frac{h_1+h_2}{L}
(D) \huge \frac{2h}{L}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
59. In an artesian aquifer, the draw downs in two observation wells,
located at distances of 100 m and 300 m, were found to be same after one
hour and 'x' hours respectively. The value of 'x' in such case is
(A) 27 hrs
(B) 9 hrs
(C) 3 hrs
(D) 1/9 hrs
(E) Answer not known
(B) 9 hrs
(C) 3 hrs
(D) 1/9 hrs
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
60. The water is available as runoff from a catchment area during
rainfall is called
(A) Rain water
(B) Ground water
(C) Surface water
(D) Reclamation
(E) Answer not known
(B) Ground water
(C) Surface water
(D) Reclamation
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
61. Lining of irrigation channels
(A) Increases the water logging area
(B) Decreases the water logging area
(C) Does not change the water logging area
(D) Mild change in water logging area
(E) Answer not known
(B) Decreases the water logging area
(C) Does not change the water logging area
(D) Mild change in water logging area
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
62. The cross-drainage work where the bed level of the stream and the
canal are more or less at the same level is called
(A) Aqueduct
(B) Syphon-Aqueduct
(C) Level crossing
(D) Super passage
(E) Answer not known
(B) Syphon-Aqueduct
(C) Level crossing
(D) Super passage
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
63. The canal which is not supposed to do any irrigation is called
(A) Main canal
(B) Water course
(C) Minor distributary
(D) Major distributary
(E) Answer not known
(B) Water course
(C) Minor distributary
(D) Major distributary
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
64. Fish ladder is provided on the side of
(A) divide wall
(B) diaphragm wall
(C) core wall
(D) wing wall
(E) Answer not known
(B) diaphragm wall
(C) core wall
(D) wing wall
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
65. A stream of 125 litre/s was diverted from a canal having culturable
command area of 300 ha and 100 litre/s was delivered to the field. Find
the water conveyance efficiency.
(A) 40%
(B) 37.5%
(C) 80%
(D) 60%
(E) Answer not known
(B) 37.5%
(C) 80%
(D) 60%
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
66. The water having the value of (SAR) Sodium Absorption Ratio is
helpful for all crops lies between
(A) 0 to 10
(B) 10 to 18
(C) 18 to 26
(D) 26 to 34
(E) Answer not known
(B) 10 to 18
(C) 18 to 26
(D) 26 to 34
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
67. As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is
(A) Directly proportional to average particle size
(B) Inversely proportional to average particle size
(C) Directly proportional to square root of average particle size
(D) Not related to average particle size
(E) Answer not known
(B) Inversely proportional to average particle size
(C) Directly proportional to square root of average particle size
(D) Not related to average particle size
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
68. The population of a city is 8,00,000 and it to be supplied with
water from a reservoir 6.4 km away. Water is to be supplied at the rate
of 140 litres/head /day and half the supply is to be delivered in 8
hours. Calculate the discharge of water.
(A) 1.05 m3/s
(B) 1.53 m3/s
(C) 1.75 m3/s
(D) 1.94 m3/s
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1.53 m3/s
(C) 1.75 m3/s
(D) 1.94 m3/s
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
69. The peak discharge of the Snyder’s synthetic unit hydrograph is
given by
where
Qp – Peak discharge
A – drainage area
Cp – Storage co-efficient
t – basin lag
where
Qp – Peak discharge
A – drainage area
Cp – Storage co-efficient
t – basin lag
(A) \huge Q_p=\frac{2.778\ A}{C_p\times t_p}
(B) \huge Q_p=\frac{2.778\ A\times C_p}{t_p}
(C) \huge Q_p=\frac{2.78\ C_p\times t_p}{A}
(D) \huge Q_p=\frac{2.778\ t_p}{A\times C_p}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge Q_p=\frac{2.778\ A\times C_p}{t_p}
(C) \huge Q_p=\frac{2.78\ C_p\times t_p}{A}
(D) \huge Q_p=\frac{2.778\ t_p}{A\times C_p}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
70. Dicken’s formula for estimating flood discharge is given by the
expression
(A) \huge Q=CA^{2/3}
(B) \huge Q=CA^{3/4}
(C) \huge Q=CA^{2/5}
(D) \huge Q=CA^{4/3}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge Q=CA^{3/4}
(C) \huge Q=CA^{2/5}
(D) \huge Q=CA^{4/3}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
71. The Muskingum method of flood routing is a
(A) Form of hydraulic routing of a flood
(B) Form of reservoir routing
(C) Complete numerical solution of St. Venant equations
(D) Hydrological channel routing method
(E) Answer not known
(B) Form of reservoir routing
(C) Complete numerical solution of St. Venant equations
(D) Hydrological channel routing method
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
72. In a flowing river, a body is immersed at a depth of 3.5 m and the
pressure on the upstream face of the body is found to be 35.30
kN/m2. Find the stagnation pressure head.
(A) 3.500 m
(B) 3.598 m
(C) 3.698 m
(D) 3.498 m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 3.598 m
(C) 3.698 m
(D) 3.498 m
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
73. Select the correct statement.
(A) Weber’s Number is the ratio of static force to elastic force
(B) Weber’s Number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force
(C) Weber’s Number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force
(D) Weber’s Number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force
(E) Answer not known
(B) Weber’s Number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force
(C) Weber’s Number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force
(D) Weber’s Number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
74. Darcy’s law states that the velocity is
(A) Proportional to hydraulic gradient
(B) Proportional to square of hydraulic gradient
(C) Inversely proportional to hydraulic gradient
(D) inversely proportional to square of hydraulic gradient
(E) Answer not known
(B) Proportional to square of hydraulic gradient
(C) Inversely proportional to hydraulic gradient
(D) inversely proportional to square of hydraulic gradient
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
75. 25 cm diameter pipe (Area = 0.049 m2) carries oil of
specific gravity 0.9 at a velocity of 3 m/s. and another section the
diameter is 20 cm (Area = 0.0314 m2). Find the velocity at
this section.
(A) 1.92 m/s
(B) 1.7 m/s
(C) 4.68 m/s
(D) 4.24 m/s
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1.7 m/s
(C) 4.68 m/s
(D) 4.24 m/s
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
76. Which of following relations for the rectangular channel is correct?
(A) \huge \frac{dQ}{Q}=\frac{3}{2}\frac{dH}{H}
(B) \huge \frac{dQ}{Q}=\frac{5}{2}\frac{dH}{H}
(C) \huge \frac{dQ}{Q}=\frac{7}{2}\frac{dH}{H}
(D) \huge \frac{dQ}{Q}=\frac{9}{2}\frac{dH}{H}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{dQ}{Q}=\frac{5}{2}\frac{dH}{H}
(C) \huge \frac{dQ}{Q}=\frac{7}{2}\frac{dH}{H}
(D) \huge \frac{dQ}{Q}=\frac{9}{2}\frac{dH}{H}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
77. The sequent depths during the hydraulic jump occuring in a
rectangular channel are 0.25 m and 1.25 m. The energy loss in the Jump
is
(A) 0.8 m
(B) 1.8 m
(C) 2.8 m
(D) 3.8 m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1.8 m
(C) 2.8 m
(D) 3.8 m
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
78. Differential manometer is the device used for measuring the
difference of pressure between
(A) Different points
(B) Single end point
(C) Same pipe line
(D) Two points in a pipe line
(E) Answer not known
(B) Single end point
(C) Same pipe line
(D) Two points in a pipe line
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
79. For a right-angled V-notch, if Cd = 0.6, the formula for
the discharge measurement is
(A) \huge Q=1.317\ H^{5/2}
(B) \huge Q=1.417\ H^{5/2}
(C) \huge Q=1.517\ H^{5/2}
(D) \huge Q=1.717\ H^{5/2}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge Q=1.417\ H^{5/2}
(C) \huge Q=1.517\ H^{5/2}
(D) \huge Q=1.717\ H^{5/2}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
80. The flow through pipe is laminar if Reynold’s number is less than
(A) 5000
(B) 4000
(C) 3000
(D) 2000
(E) Answer not known
(B) 4000
(C) 3000
(D) 2000
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
81. The value of a property recorded in the register of a municipality
in order to determine the amount of municipal taxes to be collected from
the owner of the property is known as
(A) Assessed value
(B) Book value
(C) Market value
(D) Salvage value
(E) Answer not known
(B) Book value
(C) Market value
(D) Salvage value
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
82. Only a selected number of contractors are invited to quote their
rates for the supply of articles is known as
(A) Open tenders
(B) Limited tenders
(C) Single tenders
(D) Rate contract
(E) Answer not known
(B) Limited tenders
(C) Single tenders
(D) Rate contract
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
83. The method used for valuation of land and building combined together
is
(A) Development method
(B) Belting method
(C) Rental method
(D) Project based valuation
(E) Answer not known
(B) Belting method
(C) Rental method
(D) Project based valuation
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
84. The contractor puts up higher rates for certain items and lower
rates for other items so that the total amount of the tender remains
practically unaffected is known as
(A) Scrutiny of tender
(B) Balanced tender
(C) Unbalanced tender
(D) Revocation of tender
(E) Answer not known
(B) Balanced tender
(C) Unbalanced tender
(D) Revocation of tender
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
85. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(i) Painting is measured in sq.m (ii) Excavation is measured in sq.m (iii) Construction joint is measured in sq.m (iv) Plastering is measured in sq.m
(i) Painting is measured in sq.m (ii) Excavation is measured in sq.m (iii) Construction joint is measured in sq.m (iv) Plastering is measured in sq.m
(A) (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(E) Answer not known
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
86. Time-cost ratio is the ratio of
(A) Increase in cost by increase in time
(B) Increase in cost by decrease in time
(C) Decrease in cost by increase in time
(D) Decrease in cost by decrease in time
(E) Answer not known
(B) Increase in cost by decrease in time
(C) Decrease in cost by increase in time
(D) Decrease in cost by decrease in time
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
87. According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is
(A) Length, Breadth, Height
(B) Breadth, Length, Height
(C) Height, Length, Breadth
(D) Breadth, Height, Length
(E) Answer not known
(B) Breadth, Length, Height
(C) Height, Length, Breadth
(D) Breadth, Height, Length
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
88. The date wise showing the number and trade categories of workers
required for manpower planning and mobilisation.
(A) Direct material forecast
(B) Direct labour forecast
(C) Machinery forecast
(D) Production cost forecast
(E) Answer not known
(B) Direct labour forecast
(C) Machinery forecast
(D) Production cost forecast
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
89. Identify the correct sequence of the process in tendering:
(I) Notice inviting tenders (II) Submission of bids (III) Analysis of submitted tenders (IV) Acceptance of tender (V) Work order (VI) Letter of intent
(I) Notice inviting tenders (II) Submission of bids (III) Analysis of submitted tenders (IV) Acceptance of tender (V) Work order (VI) Letter of intent
(A) (I), (II), (IV), (III), (V), (VI)
(B) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (VI), (V)
(C) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V), (VI)
(D) (I), (II), (VI), (IV), (III), (V)
(E) Answer not known
(B) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (VI), (V)
(C) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V), (VI)
(D) (I), (II), (VI), (IV), (III), (V)
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
90. At the end of the utility period of the property the book value will
be
(A) Market value
(B) Capital cost
(C) Annuity
(D) Scrap value
(E) Answer not known
(B) Capital cost
(C) Annuity
(D) Scrap value
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
91. The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day
is
(A) 2.0 m3
(B) 3.0 m3
(C) 4.0 m3
(D) 5.0 m3
(E) Answer not known
(B) 3.0 m3
(C) 4.0 m3
(D) 5.0 m3
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
92. The volume of cutting of an embankment shown in figure is
(A) \huge V=\left[Bd^2+Sd\right]\times length
(B) \huge V=\left[Bd+Sd^2\right]\times Length
(C) \huge V=[Bd+Sd]×Length
(D) \huge V=[B+Sd]×Length
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge V=\left[Bd+Sd^2\right]\times Length
(C) \huge V=[Bd+Sd]×Length
(D) \huge V=[B+Sd]×Length
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
93. The name of probability distribution taken to represent the
completion time in PERT analysis is
(A) Gamma distribution
(B) Normal distribution
(C) Beta distribution
(D) Log-normal distribution
(E) Answer not known
(B) Normal distribution
(C) Beta distribution
(D) Log-normal distribution
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
94. The optimistic time of an activity is 4 days, its most likely time
is 6 days and pessimistic time is 8 days. Its expected time shall be
(A) 4 days
(B) 6 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 10 days
(E) Answer not known
(B) 6 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 10 days
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
95. The time which results in the least possible construction cost of an
activity is known as
(A) Normal time
(B) Slow time
(C) Crash time
(D) Standard time
(E) Answer not known
(B) Slow time
(C) Crash time
(D) Standard time
(E) Answer not known
Answer:
96. Consider the following statements:
(1) PERT is activity oriented and adopts deterministic approach
(2) CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach
(3) PERT is event oriented and adopts probabilistic approach
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) PERT is activity oriented and adopts deterministic approach
(2) CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach
(3) PERT is event oriented and adopts probabilistic approach
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(A) (1) only
(B) (1) and (2)
(C) (2) and (3)
(D) (3) only
(E) Answer not known
(B) (1) and (2)
(C) (2) and (3)
(D) (3) only
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
97. Which rule is used for numbering the events in a network?
(A) Watson’s rule
(B) Stevenson’s rule
(C) Jackson’s rule
(D) Fulkerson’s rule
(E) Answer not known
(B) Stevenson’s rule
(C) Jackson’s rule
(D) Fulkerson’s rule
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
98. Inflation results in an increase in the price of good and services
and thus gradually.
(A) Decreases the purchasing power of money
(B) Increases the purchasing power of money
(C) Increases the cost of borrowing
(D) Increases unemployment
(E) Answer not known
(B) Increases the purchasing power of money
(C) Increases the cost of borrowing
(D) Increases unemployment
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
99. The project completion time for the given network is
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14
(E) Answer not known
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
100. The behaviour of fresh concrete in the Freezing temperature
(A) Sets freely
(B) Sets slowly
(C) Sets rapidly
(D) Does not set
(E) Answer not known
(B) Sets slowly
(C) Sets rapidly
(D) Does not set
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
101. Electronic distance measurement instruments use
(A) X-rays
(B) Sound waves
(C) Light waves
(D) Magnetic flux
(E) Answer not known
(B) Sound waves
(C) Light waves
(D) Magnetic flux
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
102. A satellite station is a station
(A) Also known as a resected point
(B) Also known as an intersected point
(C) Which falls on the circumference of the circle passing through three main triangulation stations
(D) Close to the main triangulation station that cannot be occupied for making observations
(E) Answer not known
(B) Also known as an intersected point
(C) Which falls on the circumference of the circle passing through three main triangulation stations
(D) Close to the main triangulation station that cannot be occupied for making observations
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
103. Which Electronic Distance Measurement Instruments comes under the
long rang instruments enable to measurement upto 100 km?
(A) Infrared ray instrument
(B) Microwave ray instrument
(C) Ultraviolet ray instrument
(D) Visible light instrument
(E) Answer not known
(B) Microwave ray instrument
(C) Ultraviolet ray instrument
(D) Visible light instrument
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
104. A traverse deflection angle is
(A) Less than 90°
(B) More than 90° but less than 180°
(C) The difference between the included angle and 180°
(D) The difference between 360° and the include angle
(E) Answer not known
(B) More than 90° but less than 180°
(C) The difference between the included angle and 180°
(D) The difference between 360° and the include angle
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
105. The values of tacheometric constants depend on
(A) Focal length of object glass interval between stadia hairs,
horizontal distance from optical centre to the vertical axis of the
tacheometry
(B) Focal length of eye piece, interval between stadia hairs, horizontal distance from optical centre to the vertical axis of the tacheometry
(C) Focal length of object glass, interval between stadia hairs, vertical distance from optical centre to the horizontal axis of the tacheometry
(D) Focal length of eye piece, interval between stadia hairs, vertical distance from optical centre to the vertical axis of the tacheometry
(E) Answer not known
(B) Focal length of eye piece, interval between stadia hairs, horizontal distance from optical centre to the vertical axis of the tacheometry
(C) Focal length of object glass, interval between stadia hairs, vertical distance from optical centre to the horizontal axis of the tacheometry
(D) Focal length of eye piece, interval between stadia hairs, vertical distance from optical centre to the vertical axis of the tacheometry
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
106. Principle of reversion is related with
(A) Levelling instrument
(B) Chain
(C) Plane table
(D) Box sextant
(E) Answer not known
(B) Chain
(C) Plane table
(D) Box sextant
(E) Answer not known
Answer:
107. The speedy and quick operation of levelling from any BM to the
starting point of any project is known as
(A) Longitudinal levelling
(B) Fly levelling
(C) Check levelling
(D) Simple levelling
(E) Answer not known
(B) Fly levelling
(C) Check levelling
(D) Simple levelling
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
108. One of the characteristics of a tacheometer is
(A) Additive constant is 0.5
(B) Additive constant is 100
(C) Multiplying constant is 10
(D) Multiplying constant is 100
(E) Answer not known
(B) Additive constant is 100
(C) Multiplying constant is 10
(D) Multiplying constant is 100
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
109. The angle of intersection of a Contour and a ridge line is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
(E) Answer not known
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
110. Contour interval is
(A) The vertical distance between two consecutive contours
(B) The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
(C) The vertical distance between two points on same contour
(D) The horizontal distance between two points on same contour
(E) Answer not known
(B) The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
(C) The vertical distance between two points on same contour
(D) The horizontal distance between two points on same contour
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
111. Any line drawn on a level surface, connecting any two points on it
is
(A) Plumb line
(B) Level line
(C) Horizontal line
(D) Vertical line
(E) Answer not known
(B) Level line
(C) Horizontal line
(D) Vertical line
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
112. The downhill end of the 50 m tape is held 1m too low. The
horizontal length is
(A) 49.99 m
(B) 49.01 m
(C) 49.11 m
(D) 49.10 m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 49.01 m
(C) 49.11 m
(D) 49.10 m
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
113. The objective of running a tie line is
(A) To take off set for detailed surveying
(B) To check accuracy of work
(C) To take details of nearby objects
(D) All of the above
(E) Answer not known
(B) To check accuracy of work
(C) To take details of nearby objects
(D) All of the above
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
114. In a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be greater than
(A) 120°
(B) 110°
(C) 30°
(D) 45°
(E) Answer not known
(B) 110°
(C) 30°
(D) 45°
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
115. The order of temporary adjustments of a prismatic compass are
(A) (I) centering (II) levelling and (III) focussing the prism
(B) (I) levelling (II) centering and (III) focussing the prism
(C) (I) focusing the prism (II) levelling (III) centering
(D) (I) focussing the prism (II) centering (III) levelling
(E) Answer not known
(B) (I) levelling (II) centering and (III) focussing the prism
(C) (I) focusing the prism (II) levelling (III) centering
(D) (I) focussing the prism (II) centering (III) levelling
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
116. Refraction Error is
(A) 1/5 of curvature error
(B) 1/3 of curvature error
(C) 1/7 of curvature error
(D) 1/4 of curvature error
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1/3 of curvature error
(C) 1/7 of curvature error
(D) 1/4 of curvature error
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
117. Convert the given reduced bearing to whole circle bearing S28°14'E
(A) 208°14'
(B) 151°46'
(C) 28°14'
(D) 298°14'
(E) Answer not known
(B) 151°46'
(C) 28°14'
(D) 298°14'
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
118. In the prismatic compass
(A) The magnetic needle moves with the box
(B) The line of the sight does not move with the box
(C) The magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
(D) The graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the N-S directions
(E) Answer not known
(B) The line of the sight does not move with the box
(C) The magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
(D) The graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the N-S directions
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
119. In an old map, a line AB was drawn to a magnetic bearing of 5°30'
the magnetic declination at the time being 1° East. To what magnetic
bearing should the line be set now if the present magnetic declination
is 8°30' East.
(A) 358°
(B) 250°
(C) 125°
(D) 100°
(E) Answer not known
(B) 250°
(C) 125°
(D) 100°
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
120. The sum of measured interior angle should be equal to, N = Number
of sides of the traverse
(A) (2N – 4)× 90
(B) (2N + 4) × 90
(C) (4N – 2) × 90
(D) (4N + 2) × 90
(E) Answer not known
(B) (2N + 4) × 90
(C) (4N – 2) × 90
(D) (4N + 2) × 90
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
121. The maximum principal stress theory should be used for
(A) Gold
(B) Cast iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Steel
(E) Answer not known
(B) Cast iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Steel
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
122. Max shear stress in a solid shaft of diameter D and length L,
twisted through an angle of θ is τs. A hollow shaft of same
material and length having outside and inside diameter of D and D/2
respectively is also Twisted through the same angle of twist θ. The
value of max shear stress (τh) in the hollow shaft will be
(A) \huge \frac{\tau_s}{15}
(B) \huge \frac{\tau_s}{16}
(C) \huge \frac{15\tau_s}{16}
(D) \huge \frac{16\tau_s}{15}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{\tau_s}{16}
(C) \huge \frac{15\tau_s}{16}
(D) \huge \frac{16\tau_s}{15}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
123. What is the angle between principal Strain axis and maximum shear
strain axis?
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
(E) Answer not known
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
124. A simply supported beam of span 6 m is subjected to uniformly
distributed load over the entire span. If the deflection of the centre
of the beam is not to exceed 4 mm, find the value of the load. Take
\huge E=200\ GPa and \huge I=300\times{10}^6\ mm^4
(A) 0.142 kN/m
(B) 1.42 kN/m
(C) 14.2 kN/m
(D) 142 kN/m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1.42 kN/m
(C) 14.2 kN/m
(D) 142 kN/m
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
125. Total strain energy in the hollow shaft due to torsion is _______
where
τ = shear stress
C = shear modulus
D and d= outer and inner diameter of shaft
\huge V=Volume\left(V=\frac{\pi}{4}\left(D^2-d^2\right)l\right)
where
τ = shear stress
C = shear modulus
D and d= outer and inner diameter of shaft
\huge V=Volume\left(V=\frac{\pi}{4}\left(D^2-d^2\right)l\right)
(A) \huge \frac{\tau^2}{4CD^2}\left(D^2+d^2\right)V
(B) \huge \frac{\tau^2}{4cd^2}\left(D^2+d^2\right)V
(C) \huge \frac{\tau^2}{4CD^2}\left(D^2-d^2\right)V
(D) \huge \frac{\tau^2}{4cd^2}\left(D^2-d^2\right)V
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{\tau^2}{4cd^2}\left(D^2+d^2\right)V
(C) \huge \frac{\tau^2}{4CD^2}\left(D^2-d^2\right)V
(D) \huge \frac{\tau^2}{4cd^2}\left(D^2-d^2\right)V
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
126. Assertion (A): Beam of circular cross section is stronger than
rectangular cross section.
Reason (R): Maximum shear stress developed in the circular section is less than that in the rectangular cross section
Reason (R): Maximum shear stress developed in the circular section is less than that in the rectangular cross section
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(E) Answer not known
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
127. What is the torsional rigidity of the shaft having diameter 4 cm
and rigidity modulus \huge 8\times{10}^4 N/mm2? The max. shear
stress is limited to \huge 60\ N/mm^2
(A) \huge 2.0096\times{10}^{10}\ Nmm^2
(B) \huge 2.0096\times{10}^{10}\ N/mm^2
(C) \huge 2.0096\times{10}^6\ Nmm^2
(D) \huge 2.0096\times{10}^6\ N/mm^2
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge 2.0096\times{10}^{10}\ N/mm^2
(C) \huge 2.0096\times{10}^6\ Nmm^2
(D) \huge 2.0096\times{10}^6\ N/mm^2
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
128. A cantilever beam AB, 2 m long carries a uniformly distributed load
of 1.5 kN/m over a length of 1.6 m from the free end 'B', What is the
shear force at support 'A'?
(A) 1.6 kN
(B) 2.4 kN
(C) 2.88 kN
(D) 2.80 kN
(E) Answer not known
(B) 2.4 kN
(C) 2.88 kN
(D) 2.80 kN
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
129. Shear Span is defined as the zone where,
(A) bending moment is zero
(B) shear force is zero
(C) shear force is constant
(D) bending moment is constant
(E) Answer not known
(B) shear force is zero
(C) shear force is constant
(D) bending moment is constant
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
130. The equivalent bending moment under combined action of bending
moment M and torque T is
(A) \huge \sqrt{M^2+T^2}
(B) \huge \frac{1}{2}\sqrt{M^2+T^2}
(C) \huge M+\sqrt{M^2+T^2}
(D) \huge \frac{1}{2}\left[M+\sqrt{M^2+T^2}\right]
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{1}{2}\sqrt{M^2+T^2}
(C) \huge M+\sqrt{M^2+T^2}
(D) \huge \frac{1}{2}\left[M+\sqrt{M^2+T^2}\right]
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
131. In a simply supported beam of length 'L' carrying a concentrated
load (W) at mid span, the maximum Bending moment is equal to
(A) \huge \frac{WL}{4}
(B) \huge \frac{WL}{8}
(C) \huge \frac{WL^2}{4}
(D) \huge \frac{WL^2}{8}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{WL}{8}
(C) \huge \frac{WL^2}{4}
(D) \huge \frac{WL^2}{8}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
132. If hinged end of a propped cantilever of span L and flexural
rigidity EI undergoes a rotation 'θ’, then shear in the beam will be
(A) \huge \frac{EI\theta}{L^2}
(B) \huge \frac{2EI\theta}{L^2}
(C) \huge \frac{3EI\theta}{L^2}
(D) \huge \frac{6EI\theta}{L^2}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{2EI\theta}{L^2}
(C) \huge \frac{3EI\theta}{L^2}
(D) \huge \frac{6EI\theta}{L^2}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
133. The strain energy in a member is proportional to
(A) Total strain multiplied by the volume of the member
(B) Product of stress and the corresponding strain
(C) Product of strain and young’s modulus of the material
(D) The maximum strain multiplied by the length of the member
(E) Answer not known
(B) Product of stress and the corresponding strain
(C) Product of strain and young’s modulus of the material
(D) The maximum strain multiplied by the length of the member
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
134. If the values of modulus of elasticity and Poisson’s ratio for an
material is 150 GPa and 0.25 respectively. What is the value of bulk
modulus?
(A) 25 GPa
(B) 75 GPa
(C) 100 GPa
(D) 150 GPa
(E) Answer not known
(B) 75 GPa
(C) 100 GPa
(D) 150 GPa
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
135. A cantilever beam is loaded as shown in figure. What is the maximum
bending moment is the beam?
(A) 60 kNm
(B) 80 kNm
(C) 120 kNm
(D) 160 kNm
(E) Answer not known
(B) 80 kNm
(C) 120 kNm
(D) 160 kNm
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
136. The ratio of bulk modulus to modulus of elasticity for a Poisson’s
ratio of 0.25 would be
(A) 2/3
(B) 1/3
(C) 4/3
(D) 1.0
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1/3
(C) 4/3
(D) 1.0
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
137. A steel rod 1 m long 20 mm × 20 mm in cross section is subjected to
a tensile force of 40 kN. Determine the elongation of Rod if modulus of
Elasticity for rod material is 200 GPa.
(A) 0.5 mm
(B) 5 mm
(C) 0.05 mm
(D) 0.005 mm
(E) Answer not known
(B) 5 mm
(C) 0.05 mm
(D) 0.005 mm
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
138. Centre of gravity of a solid hemisphere of radius ‘r’ will be at a
distance of
(A) \huge \frac{4r}{8} from the plane base
(B) \huge \frac{2r}{8} from the plane base
(C) \huge \frac{3r}{8} from the plane base
(D) \huge \frac{5r}{8} from the plane base
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{2r}{8} from the plane base
(C) \huge \frac{3r}{8} from the plane base
(D) \huge \frac{5r}{8} from the plane base
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
139. The equilibrium equation about x axis for a ladder resting against
a vertical wall where the coefficient of friction between the wall and
ladder is 1/2, ——————— (‘A’ and 'B' are the points of contact between
floor with ladder and wall with ladder)
(A) \huge N_A+\frac{N_B}{3}=0
(B) \huge \frac{N_A}{2}+\frac{N_B}{3}=0
(C) \huge \frac{N_A}{2}-\frac{N_B}{3}=0
(D) \huge \frac{N_A}{2}-N_B=0
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{N_A}{2}+\frac{N_B}{3}=0
(C) \huge \frac{N_A}{2}-\frac{N_B}{3}=0
(D) \huge \frac{N_A}{2}-N_B=0
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
140. A cantilever beam of length 'l' is carrying distributed load whose
intensity varies uniformly from Zero at fixed end to 'w' per unit run at
the free end. The deflection at the free end is
(A) \huge \frac{wl^3}{48\ EI}
(B) \huge \frac{wl^4}{48\ EI}
(C) \huge \frac{wl^4}{120\ EI}
(D) \huge \frac{11\ wl^4}{120\ EI}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{wl^4}{48\ EI}
(C) \huge \frac{wl^4}{120\ EI}
(D) \huge \frac{11\ wl^4}{120\ EI}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
141. Distortion settlement in saturated soils is primarily due to the
(A) Gradual expulsion of water from the voids
(B) Elastic compressions
(C) Complete dissipation of excess pure water pressure
(D) Vertical soil compression
(E) Answer not known
(B) Elastic compressions
(C) Complete dissipation of excess pure water pressure
(D) Vertical soil compression
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
142. In the engineering news formula for determining the safe load
carrying capacity of soil, the factor of safety used is
(A) 2.5
(B) 3.0
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) Answer not known
(B) 3.0
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
143. The load carrying capacity of bored pile in sand is –––––––––––
times that of driven pile.
(A) 1/2 to 2/3
(B) 2/3 to 3/4
(C) 3/4 to 5/4
(D) more than 5/4
(E) Answer not known
(B) 2/3 to 3/4
(C) 3/4 to 5/4
(D) more than 5/4
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
144. Select the incorrect statement: The negative skin friction of the
pile is caused by
(A) The movement of the surrounding compressible soil
(B) The downward drag occurs on the pile
(C) The resultant of consolidation settlement of soil
(D) Rising of water table
(E) Answer not known
(B) The downward drag occurs on the pile
(C) The resultant of consolidation settlement of soil
(D) Rising of water table
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
145. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below lists.
| Pile Type | Application |
|---|---|
| A. Friction Pile | 1. Stiff clay |
| B. Batter Pile | 2. Loose granular soil |
| C. Tension Pile | 3. Lateral Load |
| D. Compaction Pile | 4. Uplift Load |
(A) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
(B) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
(C) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(D) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(E) Answer not known
(B) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
(C) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(D) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
146. Trapezoidal footing is required when
(A) The interior column is heavier
(B) The exterior column is heavier
(C) The space outside the exterior column is limited and exterior column is heavier
(D) The two column carry equalised
(E) Answer not known
(B) The exterior column is heavier
(C) The space outside the exterior column is limited and exterior column is heavier
(D) The two column carry equalised
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
147. If the gross bearing capacity of a strip footing 1.5 m wide located
at a depth of 1m in clay is 400 kN/m2, its net bearing
capacity for γ = 20 kN/m3 is
(A) 390 kN/m2
(B) 370 kN/m2
(C) 360 kN/m2
(D) 380 kN/m2
(E) Answer not known
(B) 370 kN/m2
(C) 360 kN/m2
(D) 380 kN/m2
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
148. Gross bearing capacity of a footing is 400 kN/m2. If a
footing is 3m wide at a depth of 2m in clayey soil with unit weight
20kN/m3, then net bearing capacity will be,
(A) 350 kN/m2
(B) 360 kN/m2
(C) 340 kN/m2
(D) 460 kN/m2
(E) Answer not known
(B) 360 kN/m2
(C) 340 kN/m2
(D) 460 kN/m2
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
149. The type of shear failure that can be expected for a cohesionless
soil whose angle of internal friction is less than
(A) General shear failure
(B) Local shear failure
(C) Punching shear failure
(D) Slope failure
(E) Answer not known
(B) Local shear failure
(C) Punching shear failure
(D) Slope failure
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
150. A saturated soil stratum 6 metres thick lies above an impervious
stratum and below a pervious stratum. It has a compression index of
0.28. Change in void ratio 0.0409 and void ratio at a stress of 150
kN/m2 is 1.95. What is the settlement of the soil stratum due
to 210 kN/m2 increase in stress
(A) 6.32 cm
(B) 6.32 m
(C) 8.32 cm
(D) 8.32 m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 6.32 m
(C) 8.32 cm
(D) 8.32 m
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
151. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The failure plane does not carry maximum shear stress
(ii) The failure plane always carry maximum shear stress
(iii) The plane which has the maximum shear stress is not the failure plane.
(iv) The plane which has the maximum shear stress is the failure plane
(i) The failure plane does not carry maximum shear stress
(ii) The failure plane always carry maximum shear stress
(iii) The plane which has the maximum shear stress is not the failure plane.
(iv) The plane which has the maximum shear stress is the failure plane
(A) (i) and (iv) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
152. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
(A) directly proportional to the void ratio
(B) directly proportional to the compression Index
(C) inversely proportional to the compression index
(D) inversely proportional to the depth of clay layer
(E) Answer not known
(B) directly proportional to the compression Index
(C) inversely proportional to the compression index
(D) inversely proportional to the depth of clay layer
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
153. Co-efficient of Permeability is obtained by the equation
(A) \huge q=ki^2A
(B) \huge q=ki^3A^2
(C) \huge q=kiA
(D) \huge q=\sqrt{kiA}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge q=ki^3A^2
(C) \huge q=kiA
(D) \huge q=\sqrt{kiA}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
154. In a constant head permeameter with cross section of 8
cm2, when the flow was taking place under a hydraulic
gradient of 0.5, the amount of water collected in 60 seconds is 300 cc.
the permeability of the soil is _____ cm/s
(A) 0.0125
(B) 0.125
(C) 1.25
(D) 12.5
(E) Answer not known
(B) 0.125
(C) 1.25
(D) 12.5
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
155. A constant head permeability test was run on a sand sample 16 cm in
length and 60 cm2 in cross sectional area. Under a constant
head of 30 cm, the discharge was found to be 45 cm3 in 18
seconds. Calculate the co–efficient of permeability.
(A) \huge 2.22\times{10}^{-2}\ cm/s
(B) \huge 4.17\times{10}^{-2}\ cm/s
(C) \huge 5.17\times{10}^{-2}\ cm/s
(D) \huge 10.42\times{10}^{-2}\ cm/s
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge 4.17\times{10}^{-2}\ cm/s
(C) \huge 5.17\times{10}^{-2}\ cm/s
(D) \huge 10.42\times{10}^{-2}\ cm/s
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
156. If ‘h’ is the head of water stored, Nf is the number of
flow line and Nd is the number of equipotential drops in a
flow net then the seepage flow rate is given by
(A) \huge q=kh\frac{N_f}{N_d}
(B) \huge q=kh\frac{N_d}{N_f}
(C) \huge q=kh\left(\frac{N_f}{N_d}\right)^2
(D) \huge q=kh\sqrt{N_f/N_d}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge q=kh\frac{N_d}{N_f}
(C) \huge q=kh\left(\frac{N_f}{N_d}\right)^2
(D) \huge q=kh\sqrt{N_f/N_d}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
157. Relative density of cohesionless soil and its classification is
given in the table, but not in order. Arrange them in order
| Classification | Relative Density |
|---|---|
| A. Very Dense | 1. 15 |
| B. Loose | 2. 15-35 |
| C. Dense | 3. 35-65 |
| D. Very Loose | 4. 65-85 |
| E. Medium | 5. 85 |
(A) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 E-5
(B) A-4 B-2 C-5 D-3 E-1
(C) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3 E-5
(D) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-5 E-3
(E) Answer not known
(B) A-4 B-2 C-5 D-3 E-1
(C) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3 E-5
(D) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-5 E-3
(E) Answer not known
Answer:
158. The symbol of ‘SM’ in soil classification indicates
(A) Sandy silt
(B) Medium silt
(C) Silty sand
(D) Medium sand
(E) Answer not known
(B) Medium silt
(C) Silty sand
(D) Medium sand
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
159. The following index properties were determined for four soils
marked as A, B, C and D
Which of these soils contains more clay particles?
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Liquid limit | 50% | 48% | 43% | 41% |
| Plastic limit | 20% | 17% | 21% | 28% |
(A) Soil A
(B) Soil B
(C) Soil C
(D) Soil D
(E) Answer not known
(B) Soil B
(C) Soil C
(D) Soil D
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
160. The toughness index is defined as the ratio of
(A) \huge I_F/I_P
(B) \huge I_C/I_F
(C) \huge I_P/I_F
(D) \huge I_L/I_F
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge I_C/I_F
(C) \huge I_P/I_F
(D) \huge I_L/I_F
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
161. Using Approximate methods of Analysis, for tanks such as swimming
pools, where Length (L) and breadth (B) are both large, the walls are
designed as
(A) Cantilevers independently for both walls
(B) Cantilevers for wall with length (L) fixed at the base and other wall fixed with long wall (L)
(C) Continuous beams
(D) Either continuous or cantilever beams
(E) Answer not known
(B) Cantilevers for wall with length (L) fixed at the base and other wall fixed with long wall (L)
(C) Continuous beams
(D) Either continuous or cantilever beams
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
162. In the design of a structure, prevention of overturning, sliding or
buckling of the structure under the action of loads are covered under
______ aspect of structural design.
(A) Strength
(B) Stability
(C) Serviceability
(D) Durability
(E) Answer not known
(B) Stability
(C) Serviceability
(D) Durability
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
163. The connection of vertical stiffener to the web of plate girder are
designed for
(A) shear force
(B) shear force
(C) moment
(D) moment
(E) Answer not known
(B) shear force
(C) moment
(D) moment
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
164. The internal pressure coefficient in the wind load analysis of roof
truss for medium permeability is
(A) 0
(B) ± 0.2
(C) ± 0.5
(D) ± 0.7
(E) Answer not known
(B) ± 0.2
(C) ± 0.5
(D) ± 0.7
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
165. The member of a roof truss which is parallel to the span of the
truss and primarily under tension is called as
(A) principal rafter
(B) principal tie
(C) sag tie
(D) main strut
(E) Answer not known
(B) principal tie
(C) sag tie
(D) main strut
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
166. The interaction equation for checking the bolts for combined shear
and tension is
(A) \huge \frac{V_b}{V_{db}}+\frac{T_b}{T_{db}}\le1
(B) \huge \frac{V_b}{V_{db}}+\frac{T_b}{T_{db}}\le1.4
(C) \huge \left(\frac{V_{sb}}{V_{db}}\right)^2+\left(\frac{T_b}{T_{db}}\right)^2\le1
(D) \huge \left(\frac{V_{sb}}{V_{db}}\right)^2+\left(\frac{T_b}{T_{db}}\right)^2\le1.4
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{V_b}{V_{db}}+\frac{T_b}{T_{db}}\le1.4
(C) \huge \left(\frac{V_{sb}}{V_{db}}\right)^2+\left(\frac{T_b}{T_{db}}\right)^2\le1
(D) \huge \left(\frac{V_{sb}}{V_{db}}\right)^2+\left(\frac{T_b}{T_{db}}\right)^2\le1.4
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
167. A welded steel plate girder consisting of two flange plates of 350
mm × 16 mm and a web plate of 1000 mm × 8 mm requires
(A) no stiffeners
(B) bearing stiffeners
(C) vertical stiffeners
(D) vertical and horizontal stiffeners
(E) Answer not known
(B) bearing stiffeners
(C) vertical stiffeners
(D) vertical and horizontal stiffeners
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
168. In steel structures, under which environment, punched hole is not
allowed
(A) Mild
(B) Extreme
(C) Fatigue
(D) Severe
(E) Answer not known
(B) Extreme
(C) Fatigue
(D) Severe
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
169. For design of structural steel, the modulus of rigidity ‘G’
(A) \huge 0.769\times{10}^5N/mm^2
(B) \huge 7850\times{10}^5\ N/mm^2
(C) \huge 2.1\times{10}^5\ N/mm^2
(D) \huge 0.21\times{10}^5\ N/mm^2
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge 7850\times{10}^5\ N/mm^2
(C) \huge 2.1\times{10}^5\ N/mm^2
(D) \huge 0.21\times{10}^5\ N/mm^2
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
170. In a prestressed beam with bonded tendons, the value of tensile
stress in steel at failure stage of beam is influenced by
(A) compressive stress in concrete
(B) effective reinforcement ratio
(C) neutral axis depth
(D) density of concrete
(E) Answer not known
(B) effective reinforcement ratio
(C) neutral axis depth
(D) density of concrete
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
171. The actual length of a fillet weld should not be less than
(A) weld size
(B) two times the weld size
(C) four times the weld size
(D) six times the weld size
(E) Answer not known
(B) two times the weld size
(C) four times the weld size
(D) six times the weld size
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
172. In the case of columns of minimum dimension of 200 mm (or) under,
whose reinforcing bars do not exceed 12mm, a nominal cover may be
provided
(A) 20mm
(B) 25mm
(C) 40mm
(D) 50mm
(E) Answer not known
(B) 25mm
(C) 40mm
(D) 50mm
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
173. Reinforced cement concrete columns with slenderness ratio less than
12 will fail
(A) in buckling undergoing large lateral deformation
(B) in crushing of concrete without undergoing any lateral deformation
(C) in bending mode
(D) in shear mode
(E) Answer not known
(B) in crushing of concrete without undergoing any lateral deformation
(C) in bending mode
(D) in shear mode
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
174. In mild exposure condition, the nominal cover may be reduced by 5
mm for main reinforcement of diameter upto
(A) 16 mm
(B) 12 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 8 mm
(E) Answer not known
(B) 12 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 8 mm
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
175. In case of deep beam or in thin webbed Reinforced concrete members,
the first crack formed is,
(A) diagonal crack due to compression
(B) flexural crack
(C) diagonal crack due to tension
(D) shear crack
(E) Answer not known
(B) flexural crack
(C) diagonal crack due to tension
(D) shear crack
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
176. In a RCC Beam, the section curvature at cracking (ϕcr)
can be calculated from
(A) \huge \frac{M_u}{E_cI_{cr}}
(B) \huge \frac{M_{cr}}{E_cI_g}
(C) \huge \frac{M_{cr}}{E_cI_{cr}}
(D) \huge \frac{M_u}{E_cI_g}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{M_{cr}}{E_cI_g}
(C) \huge \frac{M_{cr}}{E_cI_{cr}}
(D) \huge \frac{M_u}{E_cI_g}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
177. Modular Ratio for M30 grade concrete as per IS456:2000 is
(A) 13.33
(B) 10.98
(C) 9.33
(D) 18.67
(E) Answer not known
(B) 10.98
(C) 9.33
(D) 18.67
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
178. The ratio of depth of parabolic and rectangular portion of stress
block of singly reinforced section is
(A) 3:4
(B) 4:3
(C) 4:5
(D) 5:4
(E) Answer not known
(B) 4:3
(C) 4:5
(D) 5:4
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
179. The maximum area of tension reinforcement shall not exceed _____
where ‘b’ breadth of beam, ‘D’ is depth of the beam.
(A) 0.4 bD
(B) 0.04 bD
(C) 0.004 bD
(D) 4 bD
(E) Answer not known
(B) 0.04 bD
(C) 0.004 bD
(D) 4 bD
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
180. What is the ratio of flexural strength (fcr) to the
characteristic compressive strength of concrete (fck) for M25
grade concrete?
(A) 0.08
(B) 0.11
(C) 0.14
(D) 0.17
(E) Answer not known
(B) 0.11
(C) 0.14
(D) 0.17
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
181. These are built out from the shore to reduce silting and dredging
to permit the free flow of tidal currents
(A) Jetties
(B) Wharves
(C) Quays
(D) Docks
(E) Answer not known
(B) Wharves
(C) Quays
(D) Docks
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
182. Out of the various imaginary zone and surfaces in and around the
airport, which is the zone or imaginary surface having the highest
elevation.
(A) Approach zone
(B) Outer horizontal surface
(C) Inner horizontal surface
(D) Turning zone
(E) Answer not known
(B) Outer horizontal surface
(C) Inner horizontal surface
(D) Turning zone
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
183. A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by principles of
buoyancy, such a chamber is called
(A) Dry dock
(B) Wet dock
(C) Floating dock
(D) Refuge dock
(E) Answer not known
(B) Wet dock
(C) Floating dock
(D) Refuge dock
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
184. At an airport, the turning radius of taxiway is given by
(A) \huge \frac{V^2}{125f}
(B) \huge \frac{V^2}{126f}
(C) \huge \frac{V^2}{127f}
(D) \huge \frac{V^2}{128f}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{V^2}{126f}
(C) \huge \frac{V^2}{127f}
(D) \huge \frac{V^2}{128f}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
185. A runway intended for operation of aircrafts using visual approach
procedures
(A) Near parallel runways
(B) Non instrument runway
(C) Runway strip
(D) Primary runway
(E) Answer not known
(B) Non instrument runway
(C) Runway strip
(D) Primary runway
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
186. In Airport, the terminal building is called
(A) Apron
(B) Hanger
(C) Aircraft control area
(D) Taxiway
(E) Answer not known
(B) Hanger
(C) Aircraft control area
(D) Taxiway
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
187. Staggered rail joints are generally provided
(A) On bridges
(B) On curves
(C) On tangents
(D) On tunnels
(E) Answer not known
(B) On curves
(C) On tangents
(D) On tunnels
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
188. This is the distance between the gauge faces of the stock rail and
the tongue rail at the heel of the switch
(A) Heel divergence
(B) Throw of the switch
(C) Switch angle
(D) Flangeway clearance
(E) Answer not known
(B) Throw of the switch
(C) Switch angle
(D) Flangeway clearance
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
189. Which element transfers its load directly to the ballast?
(A) Sleepers
(B) Wheels
(C) Locomotive
(D) Formation
(E) Answer not known
(B) Wheels
(C) Locomotive
(D) Formation
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
190. On permanent track, points and crossings are provided to change,
(A) Gauge
(B) Direction
(C) Gradient
(D) Space
(E) Answer not known
(B) Direction
(C) Gradient
(D) Space
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
191. For congested area the width of set-back varies from
(A) 0.5 m to 0.8 m
(B) 0.6 m to 1.0 m
(C) 2.0 m to 2.5m
(D) 1.0 m to 1.5 m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 0.6 m to 1.0 m
(C) 2.0 m to 2.5m
(D) 1.0 m to 1.5 m
(E) Answer not known
Answer:
192. The first stop signal is a MACLS Std III R station is _________
signal.
(A) Home
(B) Outer
(C) Starter
(D) Warner
(E) Answer not known
(B) Outer
(C) Starter
(D) Warner
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
193. The depth of ballast section in straight tracks may be calculated
as (where S is sleeper spacing, B is width of sleepers)
(A) \huge \frac{S+B}{2}
(B) \huge \frac{S-B}{2}
(C) \huge \frac{SB}{2}
(D) \huge \frac{2S}{B}
(E) Answer not known
(B) \huge \frac{S-B}{2}
(C) \huge \frac{SB}{2}
(D) \huge \frac{2S}{B}
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
194. Aggregate impact value indicates which of the following property of
aggregates?
(A) Strength
(B) Hardness
(C) Durability
(D) Toughness
(E) Answer not known
(B) Hardness
(C) Durability
(D) Toughness
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
195. Shift of the transition curve of radius 300 m and length 48 m is
(A) 0.32 m
(B) 0.42 m
(C) 0.52 m
(D) 0.62 m
(E) Answer not known
(B) 0.42 m
(C) 0.52 m
(D) 0.62 m
(E) Answer not known
Answer: a
196. Epoxy resin is an additive material and example for the following
type of modified binder material
(A) Synthetic
(B) Elastomers
(C) Thermosets
(D) Thermoplastics
(E) Answer not known
(B) Elastomers
(C) Thermosets
(D) Thermoplastics
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
197. The special feature of transition zone is
(A) Conservation of environment
(B) Conservation of forests
(C) Accommodating change from one zone to other
(D) Not accommodating change from one zone to other
(E) Answer not known
(B) Conservation of forests
(C) Accommodating change from one zone to other
(D) Not accommodating change from one zone to other
(E) Answer not known
Answer: c
198. Urbanisation and occupation of river banks and flood plains lead to
(A) Increased soil erosion
(B) High runoff
(C) Greater flow velocity
(D) Periodic exposure to inundation
(E) Answer not known
(B) High runoff
(C) Greater flow velocity
(D) Periodic exposure to inundation
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d
199. IRC recommendation for the ruling gradient in plains is
(A) 1 in 24
(B) 1 in 30
(C) 1 in 48
(D) 1 in 20
(E) Answer not known
(B) 1 in 30
(C) 1 in 48
(D) 1 in 20
(E) Answer not known
Answer: b
200. Urban planning integrates
(A) Land use planning
(B) Transportation planning
(C) Land fill
(D) Land use planning and transportation planning
(E) Answer not known
(B) Transportation planning
(C) Land fill
(D) Land use planning and transportation planning
(E) Answer not known
Answer: d