Town Planning, Civil Engineering and Architecture (Code 560): Answer Key

1. What does ICOMOS stands for?

A) International Commissions on Monuments and Sites

B) International Council on Museum and Sites

C) International Council on Monuments and Sites

D) International Committee on Museum and Open air Sites

E) Answer not known

Explanation: ICOMOS stands for the International Council on Monuments and Sites.

2. According to the 2006 Productivity Commission Inquiry Report of Australia, how does the Community generally view Heritage?

A) As an unnecessary expense

B) As a good thing to have

C) As a barrier to development

D) As a purely Academic Interest

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to the 2006 Productivity Commission Inquiry Report of Australia, the community generally views heritage as a good thing to have.

3. According to the SPAB, what was the major difference between Indian and European Medieval buildings?

A) Indian used durable material

B) Indian tradition partly alive

C) Indian building more technological

D) Indian building poorly documented

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to the SPAB, a major difference between Indian and European medieval buildings was that the Indian tradition was partly alive.

4. Which ancient Indian site was presented due to its conversion into a church by the Portuguese?

A) Konark Sun Temple

B) Ajanta Caves

C) Elephant Caves

D) Fatehpur Sikri

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Elephanta Caves (Cave 6). UNESCO notes that Cave 6 on Elephanta Island was converted and used as a Christian church by the Portuguese, whereas Konark Sun Temple was not.

5. What does ICCROM stand for?

A) International Council for Conservation of Regional Monuments

B) International Center for the conservation of Resource Monuments

C) International Center for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property

D) International Committee for the Reconstruction of old Monuments

E) Answer not known

Explanation: ICCROM stands for the International Center for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.

6. What is the main goal of preservation of historic/heritage monuments/objects?

A) Rebuild damaged parts

B) Keep existing state

C) Add modern design

D) Enhance visual appeal

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The main goal of heritage preservation is to keep the existing state of the monuments or objects.

7. According to Perry's model for how many people the ideal neighborhood unit was designed to accommodate?

A) 3,000

B) 6,000

C) 9,000

D) 12,000

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to Perry's model, the ideal neighborhood unit was designed to accommodate approximately 6,000 people.

8. Which foundational planning document formally introduced Perry's Neighborhood unit concept to the broader public and professional discourse?

A) CIAM charter of Athens

B) The American Vitruvius

C) Volume - VII of the 1929 Regional Plan

D) Housing and Town Planning Act-1909

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Perry's neighborhood unit concept was formally introduced in Volume VII of the 1929 Regional Plan for New York and Its Environs.

9. Which of the following characteristic is most commonly associated with the Bostan Central Peninsula area Studied?

A) Grid layout, wide boulevards

B) Flat hand, symmetrical zoning

C) Crooked, paths, distinct district

D) Uniformed design, same material

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Boston Central Peninsula is characterized by its crooked paths and distinct districts.

10. What Urban Design element does Kevin Lynch describe as "The Channels along which the observer customarily, occasionally or potentially moves?

A) Districts

B) Edges

C) Paths

D) Landmarks

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Kevin Lynch described paths as the "channels along which the observer customarily, occasionally or potentially moves".

11. Who is author of the book "The Radburn idea" published in 1957?

A) Steen Filler Rasmussen

B) Clarence S. Stein

C) Paul Zucker

D) Kevin Lynch

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The book "The Radburn Idea" was written by Clarence S. Stein.

12. Who designed the Urban planning project Industrial City (Cite Industrielle)?

A) Ebenezer Howard

B) Paul Zucker

C) Tony Gainer

D) Steen Eiler

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The urban planning project "Industrial City" (Cite Industrielle) was designed by Tony Garnier. The name provided in the options, Tony Gainer, is a likely typo from the source document.

13. What does the "CRUTA" stand for?

A) Conservation and Restoration of Urban Technology and Architecture

B) Cultural Revival of Urban Traditional Architecture

C) Conservation and Research of Urban Traditional Architecture

D) Construction and Renovation of Urban Transit Area

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The acronym "CRUTA" stands for Conservation and Research of Urban Traditional Architecture.

14. Which best describes the spatial planning philosophy behind the Assembly hall and high court in Chandigarh's Capital Complex?

A) Alligned for Summer Solar gain

B) Visually Separated from Secretariat for Aesthetics

C) Symbolic Opposition showing democratic balance

D) Close to Governor's Palace for admin cohesion

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The spatial planning of the Assembly Hall and High Court in Chandigarh's Capital Complex is best described as Symbolic Opposition showing democratic balance.

15. The Urban land ceiling and Regulation Act was enacted in the year

A) 1956

B) 1966

C) 1976

D) 1986

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act was enacted in 1976.

16. How is the Padmaka town plan best characterized?

A) Star shaped fort

B) Rectangular blocks around river

C) Radial roads from central Temple like Lotus petals

D) Bow shaped layout along river

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Padmaka town plan is best characterized by radial roads from a central Temple like Lotus petals.

17. According to Mansara Shilpa- Shastra, which of the following is not a factor considered in ancient town planning?

A) Wind direction

B) Traffic density

C) Climatic conditions

D) Soil study

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to the Mansara Shilpa-Shastra, factors like wind direction, climatic conditions, and soil study were considered in ancient town planning. Traffic density is a modern concept and was not a factor.

18. Reason and Assertion type.

Assertion [A]: The Swastika type town plan symbolizes movement and dynamic balance.
Reason [R]: In this plan, city layout consist of four arms radiating from central node, allowing easy division into functional zones.

A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is the not correct explanation of [A]

C) [A] is true, but [R] is false

D) [A] is false, but [R] is true

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Swastika plan's layout of four radiating arms is the reason for its symbolic meaning. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

19. Why it is difficult to clearly trace the origin of Ancient Cities?

A) Most cities were built after the historical period

B) Ancient cities were too small to study

C) Critical changes occured before historical record begun

D) Urban Development begun in isolated forest

E) Answer not known

Explanation: It is difficult to trace the origin of ancient cities because critical changes occurred before historical records began.

20. Which of the following statement best explains why the Indus Valley civilization was established near the Indus River?

A) Rich in iron ore

B) Semi-arid soil suited wooden ploughts

C) Heavy Rainfall supported forming

D) Ideal for trade with West Asia

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Because the river’s fertile soil and resources supported agriculture and settlements. The Indus River gave the Harappan civilization fertile soil, grazing land, timber, metals and fresh water; flood‑supported farming yielded surpluses that supported city development.

21. City Development plans are formulated for accessing funds under JNNURM. The terminology of 'City development plan' is renamed as

A) City Investment Plan

B) Comprehensive Development Plan

C) City Vision Plan

D) Comprehensive Investment Plan

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The terminology of 'City development plan' under JNNURM was renamed to Comprehensive Development Plan.

22. The town planning scheme that is popularly referred as 'land acquisition without tears' is known as

A) Land pooling scheme

B) Land Acquisition Scheme

C) Land Reservation

D) Guided land development

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The town planning scheme popularly referred to as 'land acquisition without tears' is the land pooling scheme.

23. In SEZ scheme, goods and services coming from SEZ into DTA are treated as

A) Imports

B) Exports

C) Inter-State supply

D) Intra state supply

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Under the SEZ scheme, goods and services from an SEZ entering the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) are treated as imports.

24. TDR shall not apply to cases where a private land is required for

A) Road widening

B) Constructing public bus stops

C) Construction of metro rail

D) Legalising illegal constructions

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Transfer of Development Rights (TDR) does not apply to cases where a private land is required for the construction of metro rail.

25. The inter tidal zone i.e., the area between low tide line and high tide line shall constitute under the classification of

A) CRZ-IA

B) CRZ-IB

C) CRZ-II

D) CRZ-III A

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The inter-tidal zone, which is the area between the low and high tide lines, is classified under CRZ-IB.

26. In urban finance collection of Betterment Levy is under the head of

A) Taxes

B) Surcharges

C) Charges

D) Fees

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A Betterment Levy, which is a charge on properties that have benefited from public infrastructure, is classified as a tax.

27. The private contractor is selected through a building process, who designs and builds a facility for a fixed fee, rate or total cost in this type of contract?

A) Supply and management contract

B) Turnkey

C) Concessions

D) Lease

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A Turnkey contract is one where a private contractor is responsible for both the design and construction of a project for a fixed cost.

28. In AMRUT Scheme the abbreviation of CWAP is

A) City Water Action Plans

B) Country Water Action Plans

C) City Water Augmentation Plans

D) Computed Water Augmentation Plans

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In the AMRUT Scheme, the abbreviation CWAP stands for City Water Augmentation Plans.

29. In an urban e-governance environment ____ facilitates effective decision-making by enhancing communication between government and citizens and within and between communities.

A) ICT

B) Finance

C) Cluster

D) Education

E) Answer not known

Explanation: ICT (Information and Communication Technology) facilitates communication and decision-making in urban e-governance.

30. The committee of HRIDAY that assists in creating the implementation and governance framework under which heritage development shall take place along with advice and guidance on all components of the scheme is

A) National Advisory Committee

B) National Project Management Unit

C) HRIDAY National Empowered Committee

D) National Mission Directorate

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The HRIDAY National Empowered Committee is the specific body that assists in setting up the framework for heritage development under the HRIDAY scheme.

31. In Aerial photography, if an object is photographed from two different positions, the line between the two perspective centres is called the

A) Axis

B) Base

C) Focus

D) Datum

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In aerial photography, the line connecting the two perspective centers from which an object is photographed is called the base.

32. An area of land, water and other environmental elements that are visible from a fixed vantage (view point) is termed as

A) Hill shade

B) Surface shed

C) View shed

D) Watershed

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A view shed is defined as the area visible from a specific observation point or vantage point.

33. The process of combining images to create one large file by means of spatial extent in digital image processing is known as

A) Subsetting

B) Rubber sheeting

C) Mosaicking

D) Stitching

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The process of combining multiple images to create a single larger one is called mosaicking.

34. Which of the following is correct in the Data editing process of GIS?

1. Pseudo nodes do not indicate an error
2. Pseudo nodes occur where a single line connects itself
3. Dangling nodes and pseudo nodes are same

A) (iii) only

B) (i) and (iii) only

C) (i) and (ii) only

D) (ii) and (iii) only

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In GIS data editing, pseudo nodes do not always indicate an error and they occur where a single line connects to itself. Dangling nodes and pseudo nodes are different. Therefore, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct.

35. Which of the following statements are true about aerial photography?

1. The cameras used in aerial photography are of short cycling time, fast lenses and efficient shutters
2. Aerial photographs are always vertical
3. Aerial cameras are capable of functioning under most extreme weather conditions

A) (i) only

B) (i) and (iii) only

C) (i) and (ii) only

D) (ii) and (iii) only

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Aerial cameras have short cycling times, fast lenses, and efficient shutters, and they can function under extreme weather conditions. However, aerial photographs can be both vertical and oblique, so statement (ii) is false.

36. The grid based GIS spatial data can be stored, manipulated, analysed and referenced basically in any one of three models. One of the below is not a such model.

A) GRID

B) IMGRID

C) MAP

D) LAGI

E) Answer not known

Explanation: While GRID and IMGRID are models for grid-based GIS data, LAGI is not a recognized model for storing or manipulating spatial data.

37. The method of predicting unknown values using known values from neighboring locations to generate a raster grid is called

A) Pixelation

B) Interpolation

C) Kriging

D) Querying

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Interpolation is the method of predicting unknown data values by using known values from surrounding locations.

38. The science and art of determining the size and shape of objects as a consequence of analysing images recorded on film or electronic media is known as

A) Digitization

B) Cartography

C) Photogrammetry

D) Orthorectification

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Photogrammetry is the science of making measurements from photographs, which is used to determine the size and shape of objects.

39. The process of adding intelligence to the data file in GIS is called as

A) Tagging

B) Digitizing

C) Buffering

D) Rubber sheeting

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In GIS, the process of adding intelligence or descriptive information to a data file is a form of tagging.

40. The use of coordinate reference system to define the location of point, line and area features is known as

A) Rasterization

B) Raster geocoding

C) Vector geocoding

D) Vectorization

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The process of assigning geographical coordinates to data, specifically for point, line, and area features, is known as vector geocoding.

41. The minimum length of fillet weld should be ____ times the size of the weld.

A) 2

B) 2.5

C) 3

D) 4

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The standard recommendation for the minimum effective length of a fillet weld is four times the weld size.

42. The cantilever type retaining wall one used in the case where earth to be retained over a depth of

A) Upto 10 m

B) Upto 5 m

C) Upto 2 m

D) Upto 3 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A cantilever retaining wall is typically used for retaining earth up to a depth of 5 m.

43. A load carrying stiffener prevents ____ of the web due to any concentrated load on the member.

A) Bending

B) Buckling

C) Shear

D) Twisting effect

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Load-carrying stiffeners are used in steel beams and girders to prevent the buckling of the web caused by concentrated loads.

44. In pocket bases, the length of the column embedded in concrete should be greater than ____ times the depth of column section.

A) 1.5

B) 1.3

C) 1.2

D) 1.7

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In pocket bases, the length of the column embedded in concrete should be greater than 1.2 times the depth of the column section to ensure proper anchorage.

45. The spacing between adjacent parallel line of fasteners, transverse to the direction of load/stress is called

A) Pitch

B) Gauge distance

C) Edge distance

D) Staggered pitch

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Gauge distance is the spacing between adjacent parallel lines of fasteners, measured perpendicular to the direction of the load or stress.

46. Which mode of failure is considered in fillet weld?

A) Bending

B) Tension

C) Shear

D) Buckling

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The primary mode of failure considered in the design of a fillet weld is shear failure along the throat of the weld.

47. The stress on a fillet weld is critical on the throat and is represented by

A) f/0.707a

B) 6f/0.708a

C) 2f/0.606a

D) 2f/0.807a

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The stress ($\sigma$) on a fillet weld is critical on the throat. The formula is $\sigma = f / t_{e}$, where the effective throat thickness $t_{e}$ is $0.707a$.

48. The load factor for dead load + imposed load in ultimate load design is

A) 1.7

B) 1.5

C) 1.6

D) 2.0

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The partial safety factor (load factor) for dead load + imposed load for ultimate load design as per IS 456 is 1.5.

49. The slenderness ratio of an element of a section between two battens must be less than ____ times the least slenderness of the column.

A) 0.5

B) 0.2

C) 0.3

D) 0.7

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The slenderness ratio of a battened element between two battens must be less than 0.5 times the least slenderness ratio of the column as a whole.

50. Prestressed concrete beam fails suddenly without warning due to

A) Failure of concrete in compression zone

B) Failure of concrete in tension zone

C) Failure of steel intension

D) Failure of buckling

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A prestressed concrete beam fails suddenly without warning due to the fracture of the steel tendons in the tension zone. This is often referred to as failure of steel in tension.

51. The stress in the steel of pre stressed concrete is the product of

A) Modular ratio $\times$ Stress in concrete

B) Modular ratio $\times$ Slenderness ratio

C) Strain in concrete $\times$ Load applied

D) Strain in the cable $\times$ Load applied

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In prestressed concrete, the stress in the steel is equal to the product of the modular ratio and the stress in the concrete.

52. An average value of Poisson's ratio for pre-stressed concrete taken for calculation is

A) 0.10

B) 0.25

C) 0.15

D) 0.29

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The average value of Poisson's ratio for pre-stressed concrete is typically taken as 0.25.

53. As per Indian code practice minimum grade of concrete used for pre-tensioned pre stressed concrete is

A) M 40

B) M 50

C) M 45

D) M 30

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The minimum grade of concrete used for pre-tensioned prestressed concrete as per Indian standards is M 40.

54. The external pre stressing of the concrete can be best obtained from

A) Flat jacks

B) Mechanical jack

C) Hydraulic jack

D) Anchor cones

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Hydraulic jacks are the most effective method for applying the external force required for prestressing concrete.

55. The provision of column head, in flat slabs, is to increase

A) Punching resistance

B) Torsional resistance

C) Tensile resistance

D) Bending resistance

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A column head in a flat slab is provided to increase the slab's shear resistance, specifically against punching shear, around the column.

56. As per IS 456-2000 the ratio of the volume of helical reinforcement to the volume of the core shall not be less than

A) 0.45 ((Ag/Ac) - 1) (fck/fy)

B) 0.30 ((Ag/Ac) - 1) (fck/fy)

C) 0.52 ((Ag/Ac) - 1) (fck/fy)

D) 0.36 ((Ag/Ac) - 1) (fck/fy)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, the ratio of the volume of helical reinforcement to the volume of the core shall not be less than 0.36 ((Ag/Ac) - 1) (fck/fy).

57. The distribution of stress and strain in concrete between the cracks can be found by using ____ theory.

A) No shop theory

B) Theory of elasticity

C) Crack theory

D) Curvature-area theorem

E) Answer not known

Explanation:

58. The design strength of a material is obtained by dividing characteristic strength of that material by

A) Partial safety factor

B) Serviceability limit

C) Total safety factor

D) Characteristic load

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The design strength of a material is obtained by dividing its characteristic strength by a partial safety factor.

59. The two principal types of limit state are

A) (i) limit state of collapse and limit state of fatigue

B) (ii) limit state of collapse and limit state of vibration

C) (iii) limit state of collapse and limit state of serviceability

D) (iv) limit state of fatigue and limit state of vibration

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The two principal types of limit states are the limit state of collapse and the limit state of serviceability.

60. The total strains due to shrinkage of concrete being generally in between the range

A) 0.0002 - 0.0006

B) 0.0002- 0.0003

C) 0.0001 -0.0005

D) 0.0001- 0.0006

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The total strains due to shrinkage of concrete generally fall within the range of 0.0001 to 0.0006.

61. Accessibility of bus stops at ____ metres distance from neighbourhood.

A) 100

B) 200

C) 300

D) 400

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The accessibility of bus stops is generally considered to be within a walking distance of 400 metres from a neighbourhood.

62. Due to rising rate of deforestation and the resulting environmental degradation, the Central Government enacted the ____ in 1980.

A) EIA

B) Forest Conservation Act

C) Environment Protection

D) Noise Pollution

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In response to rising deforestation, the Central Government enacted the Forest Conservation Act in 1980.

63. ____ are those where economic growth and development is fostering, that reduce negative environmental externalities, the impact on natural resources and the pressure on ecosystem services.

A) Sponge city

B) Green city

C) Eco-city

D) Compact city

E) Answer not known

Explanation: An Eco-city is a city where economic growth and development are fostered while reducing negative environmental impacts and pressure on natural resources and ecosystem services.

64. If any development is focused around a transit node and facilitates ease of access to the transit facility is called as

A) Transit oriented development

B) Sustainable planning

C) Compact city

D) Green city

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Transit-oriented development (TOD) is a type of urban development that is focused around a transit node to facilitate easy access to the transit facility.

65. Health, Security, Vigor and Sustainability are the basic principles of

A) Sustainable planning

B) Green city

C) Smart city

D) Eco-city planning

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Sustainable planning is guided by the basic principles of health, security, vigor, and sustainability.

66. Which e-services of a smart city deals with distant learning opportunities, training material to the students?

A) e-Learning

B) e-Security

C) e-Business

D) e-Health and Tele-care

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The e-service of a smart city that deals with distant learning opportunities and training material for students is e-Learning.

67. ____ is a compact and integrated transportation development, which is incorporated in compact cities.

A) Compact city

B) Transit oriented development

C) Eco city

D) Smart city

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Transit oriented development is a compact and integrated transportation development that is often incorporated in compact cities.

68. The EIA notification 2006 has notified ____ developmental sectors, which require prior EC.

A) 30

B) 39

C) 34

D) 36

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The EIA notification of 2006 has notified 39 developmental sectors that require prior Environmental Clearance (EC).

69. Statutory Towns means

A) First category of urban units

B) Second category of towns

C) First category of medium town

D) Second category of large city

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A Statutory Town is defined as the first category of urban units.

70. Expansion of URDPFI

A) Urban and Regional Planning

B) Rural Planning

C) Urban and Regional Development Plans Formulation and Implementation

D) Urban and Rural Development Plans Formulation and Implementation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: URDPFI is the acronym for Urban and Regional Development Plans Formulation and Implementation.

71. In EIA process, ____ are adequately taken into consideration in the decision making process.

A) Scoping

B) Screening

C) Decision making

D) Public consultation and participation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In the EIA process, public consultation and participation are adequately taken into consideration in the decision-making process.

72. In EIA process ____ seeks to identify at an early stage from all of a projects possible impacts and from all the alternatives that could be addressed.

A) Decision making

B) Scoping

C) Public participation

D) Screening

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Scoping is the process in EIA that seeks to identify a project's possible impacts and alternatives at an early stage.

73. ____ is a second type of agglomerative economy which occurs if the production cost of an individual firm decreases as the total output of the urban area increases.

A) Urbanization economies

B) Localization economies

C) Agglomerative economy

D) Economic base study

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Urbanization economies are a type of agglomerative economy where the production cost of a firm decreases as the total output of the urban area increases.

74. The limitation of area and height of buildings shall be specified in terms of

A) Development Control Regulations

B) Floor Area Ratio

C) Open Space Ratio

D) Set backs

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The limitation of area and height of buildings is commonly specified in terms of the Floor Area Ratio (FAR).

75. Economic base study means

A) For projecting employment growth

B) For economic growth

C) For multiplier effect

D) For labour demand

E) Answer not known

Explanation: An economic base study is a method used for analyzing and projecting employment growth.

76. The ____ labour sells its products to consumers outside the city.

A) Local

B) Inside

C) Export

D) Import

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Export labor produces goods and services that are sold to consumers outside the city.

77. There are two types of Agglomerative economies. They are

A) Localization economies and urbanization economies

B) Import and export economies

C) Scale economies

D) Trade

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The two types of agglomerative economies are localization economies and urbanization economies.

78. According to ____ theory, the export industries form the economic base of the urban economy.

A) Economic growth

B) Economic base theory

C) Base study

D) Economics

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to the Economic base theory, the export industries are the fundamental drivers of an urban economy.

79. Agglomeration economics can be described in ____ categories.

A) Sharing, matching and learning

B) Land economics

C) Sharing and matching

D) Learning

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Agglomeration economies are often described in terms of three categories: sharing, matching, and learning.

80. Under which land use category does the retail shopping zone categorized?

A) Industry

B) Commercial

C) Residential

D) Public and semi-public

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A retail shopping zone is categorized under the commercial land use category.

81. The ear is most sensitive for noise in the frequency range of

A) 20 to 50 Hz

B) 200 to 500 Hz

C) 2,000 to 5,000 Hz

D) 600 Hz to 1,500 Hz

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The human ear is most sensitive to frequencies in the range of 2,000 to 5,000 Hz.

82. ____ is necessary when the waste water contains either excess alkali (or) acid.

A) Demonstration

B) Chemical treatment

C) Biological treatment

D) Neutralization

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Neutralization is the process necessary to treat wastewater that contains excess acid or alkali.

83. The industrial installations for the ____ sources of air pollution.

A) Square

B) Mobile

C) Line

D) Stationary

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Industrial installations are typically considered stationary sources of air pollution.

84. Organic matter in the solid waste is digested and converted into humus and stable mineral compounds by

A) Pulverisation

B) Composting

C) Incineration

D) Dumping

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Composting is the process by which organic matter in solid waste is digested and converted into humus and stable mineral compounds.

85. ____ is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps.

A) Vent pipe

B) Soil pipe

C) Antisiphonage pipe

D) Waste pipe

E) Answer not known

Explanation: An antisiphonage pipe is installed in house drainage to prevent the siphoning action that could break the water seal of traps.

86. ____ digestion is a process in which micro organisms obtain energy by endogenous (or) auto oxidation of their cellular protoplasm.

A) Anaerobic

B) Sludge

C) Aerobic

D) Elutriation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Aerobic digestion. During aerobic digestion (endogenous respiration), microorganisms oxidize their own protoplasm to obtain energy, a process described as endogenous or auto‑oxidation.

87. Demineralisation is a ____ in unit operation in waste water treatment.

A) Preliminary process

B) Primary treatment process

C) Secondary treatment process

D) Tertiary treatment process

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Demineralisation is a process used in the tertiary treatment of wastewater to remove dissolved minerals and salts.

88. ____ is the physical unit operation in waste water treatment.

A) Sedimentation

B) Plug flow

C) Adsorption

D) Disinfection

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Sedimentation is a physical process used in wastewater treatment where solids are separated from the liquid by gravity.

89. ____ is constructed on a sewer line to provide connection between a high level branch sewer to a low level main sewer.

A) Clean outs

B) Lamp hole

C) Access hole

D) Drop man hole

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A drop manhole is constructed on a sewer line to provide a connection between a high-level branch sewer and a low-level main sewer.

90. At ____ velocity the solid particles will remain in suspension without settling at the bottom of the sewer.

A) Maximum

B) Self cleansing

C) Peak flow

D) Dry weather flow

E) Answer not known

Explanation: At a self-cleansing velocity, the flow is fast enough to keep solid particles in suspension, preventing them from settling and causing blockages.

91. The approximate optimum velocity for 15 cm diameter pipe is ____ m/sec.

A) 1.020

B) 1.0020

C) 120

D) 1.20

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The approximate optimum velocity for a 15 cm diameter pipe is 1.20 m/sec.

92. In ____ system of supply, water is supplied only for the peak periods during morning and evening.

A) Continuous supply

B) Intermittent supply

C) Rotational supply

D) Mod flow

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In an intermittent supply system, water is supplied only for specific periods, typically during peak times like morning and evening.

93. Grid iron system is also known as

A) Reticulated system

B) Tree system

C) Line system

D) Radial system

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The grid iron system for water distribution is also known as a reticulated system.

94. ____ valves are placed at the low points in the distribution pipe system.

A) Sluice valves

B) Air valves

C) Drain valves

D) Pressure relief valves

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Drain valves are placed at the low points of a water distribution system to allow the pipes to be emptied for maintenance.

95. The sea water is the most evident example of salt water. Sea water averages ____ percent of salt.

A) 0.0

B) 1.0

C) 3.5

D) 1.5

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Seawater has an average salinity of approximately 3.5 percent by weight.

96. ____ effect is produced when the velocity of water in the pipe is stopped suddenly by sudden closure of valve.

A) Stresses of bends

B) Internal pressure

C) Water hammer

D) Longitudinal stress

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Water hammer is a pressure surge caused by the sudden stopping of fluid flow in a pipe.

97. ____ bacterias can survive between the temperature of $20^{\circ}$ to $40^{\circ}C$.

A) Thermophilic

B) Mesophilic

C) Faecal

D) Pshychrophilic

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Mesophilic bacteria thrive in moderate temperatures, typically between $20^{\circ}$ to $40^{\circ}C$.

98. ____ bacteria can survive without the presence of oxygen.

A) Aerobic

B) Thermophilic

C) Mesophilic

D) Anaerobic

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Anaerobic bacteria are those that can survive and grow in the absence of oxygen.

99. Hehners method to determine ____ hardness by titration with a standard solution of sulphuric acid using methyl orange as indicator.

A) Total

B) Calcium

C) Permanent

D) Temporary

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Hehner's method is a test to determine the temporary hardness of water.

100. Odour test can be carried out by ____ instrument.

A) Nephlometers

B) Calorimeter

C) Osmoscope

D) Dissolved oxygen meter

E) Answer not known

Explanation: An osmoscope is an instrument used to measure the intensity of odors in a sample.

101. Lighting condition are usually described in terms of illumination on a given plane most often the horizontal working plane known as

A) Scalar illumination

B) Planar illumination

C) Vegor illumination

D) Spherical illumination

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Lighting conditions on a specific plane, such as a horizontal working plane, are described as planar illumination.

102. Assertion [A]: The traditional shelter found in most desert regions has heavy walls of earth, brick or stone and roofs of the same material.
Reason [R]: As thick walls provide good thermal capacity as well as security and protection against noise.

A) [A] and [R] are false

B) [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

C) [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

D) [A] is true but [R] is false

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Traditional desert shelters have thick walls to provide thermal mass for temperature regulation, which also offers protection from noise and enhances security. Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

103. Sky conditions are normally ____ in warm-humid climatic zones except during storms.

A) Clear

B) Dark

C) Cloudy

D) Dull

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In warm-humid climatic zones, the sky is typically cloudy due to high humidity and atmospheric moisture.

104. Following are site planning strategies to be used for HOT ARID regions.

1. Use moisture conserving plants.
2. Trap cool air for convection.
3. Avoid heat absorbing materials.
4. Promote solar gain in winter season.

A) 1, 2, 3, are correct

B) 1, 3, 4 are correct

C) 2, 3, 4 are correct

D) All are correct

E) Answer not known

Explanation: All four strategies are suitable for hot arid regions: using moisture-conserving plants, trapping cool air, avoiding heat-absorbing materials, and promoting solar gain during the cold winter.

105. Which of the following is NOT a key strategy for site design in temperated and cold regions?

A) Promote solar gain in winter season

B) Avoid tall solid walls that block winds

C) Maintain openings for cooling summer breezes

D) Provide afternoon shade with deciduous trees

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In temperate and cold regions, the main strategy is to minimize heat loss. Therefore, maintaining large openings for cooling summer breezes is not a primary strategy.

106. Following are the advantages of providing a water feature in Urban Landscape?

1. Aesthetics
2. Functional reasons
3. Psychological
4. Utilitarian

A) 1, 2, are correct

B) 2, 3, are correct

C) 3, 4, are correct

D) All are correct

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Water features in an urban landscape provide all of the listed advantages: they are aesthetically pleasing, serve functional purposes, have positive psychological effects, and are utilitarian.

107. Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when determining widths for bikeways?

A) Spatial dimensions of Bicycle

B) Maneuvering space for balancing

C) Anticipated volume of traffic

D) Adjacent landscape strip width

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The width of a bikeway is determined by the size of the bicycle, the maneuvering space required, and the anticipated volume of bike traffic. The adjacent landscape strip width is a separate consideration.

108. Which of the following is NOT a general site design strategy for HOT ARID regions?

A) Use moisture conserving plants

B) Deflect hot winds

C) Allow for escape of cool air

D) Prevent heat build up

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In hot arid regions, the goal is to keep cool air inside. Therefore, allowing for the escape of cool air is not a general site design strategy.

109. The environmental benefits of GREEN ROOFS are

1. Improves thermal insulation
2. Reduces urban heat Island
3. Produces oxygen
4. Provided habitat for wildlife

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1, 2, 3 only

C) 1, 4 only

D) all the above

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Green roofs provide all of the listed environmental benefits, including improving thermal insulation, reducing the urban heat island effect, producing oxygen, and providing a habitat for wildlife.

110. Which of the following is NOT a green way?

A) Bicycle routes

B) Wildlife corridors

C) Tree shaded foot paths

D) Parking lots

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A greenway is a network of green spaces, such as bicycle routes and footpaths. A parking lot is a paved area for vehicles and is not considered a greenway.

111. Provision of horizontal sashes inclined at an angle of ____ in appropriate direction helps to promote the indoor air motion.

A) $30^{\circ}$

B) $60^{\circ}$

C) $45^{\circ}$

D) $120^{\circ}$

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Provision of horizontal sashes inclined at an angle of $45^{\circ}$ in an appropriate direction helps to promote indoor air motion.

112. SRI is the metric used to measure performance of a cool roof. Expand SRI

A) Solar Reflective Index

B) Solar Radiation Index

C) South Radiation Index

D) Surface Reflexive Index

E) Answer not known

Explanation: SRI stands for Solar Reflective Index.

113. ____ facing spaces will receive daylight throughout the day and most of year.

A) North

B) South

C) East

D) West

E) Answer not known

Explanation: North-facing spaces receive indirect, diffused daylight throughout the day, which provides consistent lighting without the harshness of direct sunlight.

114. In tall spaces, warm air tends to ____ and accumulate near the ceiling due to the principle of buoyancy.

A) Move

B) Fall

C) Rise

D) Stay

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Due to buoyancy, warm air is less dense than cool air and tends to rise and accumulate near the ceiling in tall spaces.

115. Assertion [A]: Choosing the optimum orientation to maximise daylight and to minimize summer heat gain and winter heat loss can have a significant impact in energy efficiency.
Reason [R]: North facing windows suffer very little solar gain and benefits are often gained by having building axis pointing east/west.

A) [A] is true but [R] is false

B) [A] is false, [R] is true

C) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The assertion is true because proper orientation is key to energy efficiency. The reason is also true and explains how North-facing windows and an east/west building axis can help achieve this goal.

116. Parking bays reserved for the handicapped should be ____ in width.

A) 2.5 m

B) 3 m

C) 3.5 m

D) 4 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Parking bays reserved for handicapped persons should be at least 3.5 m in width to allow for wheelchair maneuverability.

117. ____ is the art of arranging structures, on the land and shaping the spaces between them, an art linked to architecture, engineering, landscape architecture and city planning.

A) Site analysis

B) Site planning

C) Site inventory

D) Site surveying

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Site planning is the art of arranging structures on a piece of land and shaping the spaces between them, linking various disciplines.

118. Which of the following is an aspect of neighbourhood context in site analysis?

A) Location of the city

B) Existing and projected building use in the neighbourhood

C) Dimensions of the site

D) Drainage pattern of the site

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The existing and projected building use in the neighbourhood is a key aspect of neighborhood context during a site analysis.

119. Which of the following is NOT a HARD DATA for site analysis?

A) Location

B) Dimentions

C) Climate

D) Noise

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Hard data for site analysis includes objective, measurable facts like location and dimensions. Noise is typically considered subjective and can be difficult to measure consistently, making it "soft data" rather than "hard data."

120. Based on the object of survey, which of the following is NOT a method of object of survey?

A) Engineering survey

B) Military survey

C) Geological survey

D) Triangulation survey

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Engineering, military, and geological surveys are classifications based on the purpose or object of the survey. Triangulation survey is a method or technique used to perform a survey, not a classification based on its object.

121. Identify the correct attributes which contributes to the transport model from the following?

1. Destination
2. Population
3. Route
4. Transport mode
5. Mobility
6. Location

A) (i) (iii) (iv) (v) and (vi)

B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v)

C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) and (vi)

D) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) and (vi)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct attributes that contribute to a transport model are Destination, Population, Route, Mobility, and Location.

122. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Advanced mapping and statistical techniques are used for calculating land suitability.
2. Suitability analysis in the process to assign weightage and overlay the factors
3. All factors are assign with same weightage.

A) Only (1) is correct

B) (1) and (2) are correct

C) (2) and (3) are correct

D) (1) and (3) are correct

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Both statements (1) and (2) are correct. Land suitability analysis uses advanced mapping and statistical techniques to assign weightages and overlay different factors. Statement (3) is incorrect.

123. Assertion [A]: Land suitability refers to the ability of a particular type of land to support a specific use.
Reasons [R]: Land suitability can be used in planning process the finalize most appropriate land for particular land use.

A) Both [A] and [R] are correct

B) [A] is true [R] is false

C) [A] is false [R] is true

D) Both [A] and [R] are false

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are correct. Land suitability defines the capacity of land for a specific use, and this analysis is used to finalize the most appropriate land for a particular purpose.

124. In transportation planning, while developing the trip distribution models.
Identify the models which employs a more rational synthetic methods from the following?

1. Gravity Model
2. Tanner Model
3. Fratar Method
4. Furness Method

A) (i) and (ii)

B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

C) (iii) and (iv)

D) (ii), (iv)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Gravity Model and Tanner Model are considered rational synthetic methods for trip distribution.

125. ____ developed an urban land use model that was built around two gravity model structures, one for residential and another for retail service feedbacks.

A) Lowry

B) Zipf

C) Homer Hoyt

D) Mumford

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Lowry developed an urban land use model that was built around two gravity model structures for residential and retail services.

126. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Focused Group Discussion (FGD) is a qualitative data collection and research technique.
2. FGD costs high compared to survey.
3. FGD is used to explore meaning of survey.

A) Only (1) is correct

B) (1) and (2) are correct

C) (2) and (3) are correct

D) (1) and (3) are correct

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Focused Group Discussion (FGD) is a qualitative data collection technique (1) and is used to explore the meaning of survey results (3).

127. In transportation planning, ____ model takes the trips produced at one zone and distributes to other zones based on both the size of the other zones (as measured by their trip attraction) and composite cost (travel time, distance or cost for all modes available) to other zones.

A) Gravity

B) Lowry

C) Sector

D) Simulation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Gravity model in transportation planning distributes trips based on the size of the zones and the cost of travel between them.

128. Which of the following statement are correct as per the Variable Index Method?

1. Fixed weights are assigned
2. Variable weights are assigned
3. Weight is given to each activities

A) Only (2) is correct

B) Only (3) is correct

C) (2) and (3) are correct

D) (1) and (2) are correct

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In the Variable Index Method, variable weights are assigned and a weight is given to each activity.

129. Match the following Region.

1. The Great Mountain Wall - Kutch Peninsula
2. The Great Plain - Aravalli Hills
3. The Great Plateau - Punjab
4. Coastal Plains - Darjeeling

A) 4, 3, 2, 1

B) 1, 2, 3, 4

C) 2, 3, 4, 1

D) 3, 2, 1, 4

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct matching is: The Great Mountain Wall - Darjeeling (4), The Great Plain - Punjab (3), The Great Plateau - Aravalli Hills (2), Coastal Plains - Kutch Peninsula (1). The answer code `4, 3, 2, 1` corresponds to this mapping.

130. Match the following:

1. Macro Region - Division of a State
2. Meso Region - Zonal Councils
3. Micro Region - Grass-root planning
4. Micro-Minor Planning - Metropolitan area

A) 2, 1, 4, 3

B) 1, 2, 3, 4

C) 2, 3, 4, 1

D) 3, 4, 1, 2

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct mapping is: Macro Region - Zonal Councils (2), Meso Region - Division of a State (1), Micro Region - Metropolitan area (4), Micro-Minor Planning - Grass-root planning (3).

131. Assertion [A]: Nodal region is heterogeneous region.
Reason [R]: Interdependence is a rule in heterogeneous region.

A) Both [A] is true and [R] is true

B) [A] is false and [R] is true

C) [A] is true and [R] is false

D) Both [A] and [R] are false

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A nodal region is a heterogeneous region organized around a central node. Interdependence is a key characteristic of such regions.

132. Match the following:

1. World level - Ecological development
2. National level - Social development
3. Subnational level - Regional disparities in development
4. Local level - Economic development

A) 4, 2, 3, 1

B) 3, 4, 2, 1

C) 2, 1, 3, 4

D) 1, 2, 4, 3

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct mapping is: World level - Ecological development (4), National level - Social development (2), Subnational level - Regional disparities in development (3), Local level - Economic development (1).

133. Match the plans and projects which are correct?

1. Metro Rail - NMV facility plan
2. Freight terminals - Intermodal facility
3. Parking - Regulatory measures
4. Railway crossing - Public transport improvement plan

A) (1) and (2) are correct

B) (2) and (3) are correct

C) (3) and (4) are correct

D) (1) and (4) are correct

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Freight terminals are an example of an intermodal facility, and parking is managed through regulatory measures.

134. Match the following plan with approving authority.

1. Perspective plan - Jn NURM
2. Development plan - Municipal Council
3. Annual plan - Municipal Corporation
4. City Development plan - State Government

A) 4, 3, 2, 1

B) 3, 2, 1, 4

C) 2, 1, 4, 3

D) 1, 4, 3, 2

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct mapping is: Perspective plan (1) with Municipal Corporation (3), Development plan (2) with Municipal Council (2), Annual plan (3) with Jn NURM (1), and City Development plan (4) with State Government (4). The answer key is B) 3, 2, 1, 4. This is a bit inconsistent. Let's re-examine. If `3, 2, 1, 4` refers to the mapping of `(a)-(3), (b)-(2), (c)-(1), (d)-(4)`, then the mapping would be `(1)-3, (2)-2, (3)-1, (4)-4`.

135. Match the following plan with their scope and purpose.

1. Perspective plan - Comprehensive plan of rural areas
2. Regional plan - Spatio-economic development policies
3. Master plan - Theme based development
4. Special purpose plan - Development plan

A) 3, 4, 2, 1

B) 2, 3, 4, 1

C) 1, 2, 3, 4

D) 2, 1, 4, 3

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct mapping is: Perspective plan (1) with Spatio-economic development policies (2), Regional plan (2) with Comprehensive plan of rural areas (1), Master plan (3) with Development plan (4), and Special purpose plan (4) with Theme based development (3).

136. Assertion [A]: As per 2011 census the number of census town increased by 1851. Whereas the number of statutory towns has increased by 6.3%.
Reason [R]: This is because that a number of rural settlements have attained urban characteristics.

A) [A] is true and [R] is true

B) [A] is false and [R] is true

C) [A] is true and [R] is false

D) [A] is false and [R] is false

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Both the assertion, which is a factual statement from the 2011 census, and the reason are true. The reason correctly explains why the number of census towns has increased.

137. Match the following Author to Criteria used for classification of Region.

1. V. Nath - Energy of power
2. Bhat and Rao - Population density
3. Sen Gupta - Natural resources
4. K.L. Vij and Chandra - Topography, Land use

A) 3, 2, 1, 4

B) 2, 3, 4, 1

C) 1, 2, 3, 4

D) 4, 3, 2, 1

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct mapping is: V. Nath (1) with Natural resources (3), Bhat and Rao (2) with Population density (2), Sen Gupta (3) with Energy of power (1), and K.L. Vij and Chandra (4) with Topography, Land use (4). The answer key is A) 3, 2, 1, 4. This is a correct match.

138. Assertion [A]: There is a need of a comprehensive master plan to eradicate the evils of the ill-planned cities.
Reason [R]: After the 'Industrial Revolution' the over-grown cities become a mess and muddle with all the evils.

A) [A] is true and [R] is true

B) [A] is false and [R] is true

C) [A] is true and [R] is false

D) [A] is false and [R] is false

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are true. The reason correctly explains that the need for a comprehensive master plan arose after the Industrial Revolution.

139. Assertion [A]: The aim of town design is to see that the urban elements not only function properly but also in a pleasing way.
Reason [R]: Man has natural love for 'Beauty' and so utility and beauty must be considered in the civic design.

A) [A] is true [R] is true

B) [A] is false [R] is true

C) [A] is true [R] is false

D) [A] is false [R] is false

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The assertion is true, and the reason provides the justification for why both utility and aesthetics should be considered in town design. Both are correct.

140. Match the following:

1. Mohenjo-Daro - Harappa
2. Indus-valley civilisation - Hill of the Dead
3. Viswakarmaprakash - Swastika, Padmaka
4. Mansara Silpashastra - First layout the towns and then plan of the town

A) 2, 1, 4, 3

B) 1, 2, 3, 4

C) 4, 3, 2, 1

D) 3, 4, 1, 2

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct mapping is: Mohenjo-Daro - Hill of the Dead (2), Indus-valley civilisation - Harappa (1), Viswakarmaprakash - First layout the towns and then plan of the town (4), Mansara Silpashastra - Swastika, Padmaka (3). The answer key is A) 2, 1, 4, 3.

141. ____ are wide stone walls built along edge or out into sea, where strips can be tied up to upload goods.

A) Pontoon

B) Wharves

C) Shoreline

D) Hexapods

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Wharves are platforms built along the edge of the sea or a river, where ships can tie up to load and unload goods.

142. The long excavated chamber having side walls, a semi circular end wall and floor known as

A) Graving dock

B) Wet dock

C) Jettie

D) Channel buoys

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A graving dock is a long excavated chamber used for building and repairing ships.

143. ____ refers to sheltered sheet of water where vessels are anchored.

A) Waves

B) Tides

C) Sea

D) Harbour

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A harbour is a sheltered area of water where vessels can be anchored safely.

144. ____ consists of the strip of pavement joining the runway to Apron.

A) Air mail

B) Heli port lighting

C) Bearing capacity of soil

D) Taxi ways

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Taxiways are the strips of pavement that connect the runway to the apron and other parts of an airport.

145. The airport site selected should be such that it provides natural protection to the

A) Roads

B) Area from air raids

C) Fuel spillage

D) Drop holes on airport

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The selection of an airport site should prioritize natural protection, especially from potential air raids.

146. ____ indicates the configuration locations and size of all physical facilities.

A) Airport Access plan

B) Terminal Area Plan

C) Land use Plan

D) Airport layout plan

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The airport layout plan shows the configuration, location, and size of all physical facilities at an airport.

147. The drainage system in a railway track is a ____ element.

A) Vertical

B) Critical

C) Long layer

D) Easy

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A drainage system is a critical element of a railway track to ensure its stability and longevity.

148. The specialty of "Rack railway" is

A) It has special locomotive

B) It has special engine

C) It's has three rails instead of two rails

D) All of the above

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A rack railway has a toothed rack rail between the running rails and a special locomotive with a cogwheel to climb steep gradients. Therefore, all the given options are specialties of a rack railway.

149. Choose the correct statement regarding creep

1. Creep is greater on curves than on rails tangents
2. Creep is new rails is more than that in old rail
3. Creep is more on steep gradient than on level track

A) Only (i)

B) Only (ii)

C) Only (iii)

D) All of above

E) Answer not known

Explanation: All three statements are correct regarding creep in rails. Creep is greater on curves and steep gradients and is more pronounced in new rails than in old ones.

150. What is the maximum speed of train in standard III Interlocking?

A) 120 kmph

B) 125 kmph

C) 130 kmph

D) 140 kmph

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The maximum speed of a train in standard III interlocking is 125 kmph.

151. Which one is not special types of signals?

A) Repeater Signals

B) Detonating Signals

C) Point Indicators

D) Routing Signals

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Repeater, detonating, and routing signals are special types of signals. A point indicator is a device that shows the position of points, not a signal itself.

152. Traffic Index can be calculated by

A) 1.35 (EWL) 0.11

B) 1.25 (EWL) 0.11

C) 1.35 (EWL) 0.21

D) 1.25 (EWL) 0.21

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Traffic Index (TI) is calculated by the formula $TI = 1.25(EWL)^{0.11}$, where EWL is the Equivalent Wheel Load.

153. Alligator cracking causes due to

A) Repeated application of loads

B) Allow surface water to seep through in it

C) Relative movement of pavement layer material

D) Inherent weakness of the pavement mixtures

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Alligator cracking is a common type of pavement distress that is primarily caused by the repeated application of loads on the pavement surface.

154. Benkelman beam is a device used to measure the

A) Consistency of the pavement

B) Mix ratio of the pavement

C) Rebound deflection of the pavement

D) Flukiness of the pavement

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Benkelman beam is a device used to measure the rebound deflection of a flexible pavement under a wheel load.

155. As per IRC specification, the maximum spacing of contraction joint in unreinforced CC slab is

A) 4.5 m

B) 3.5 m

C) 4.0 m

D) 2.5 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per IRC specifications, the maximum spacing of contraction joints in an unreinforced concrete slab is 3.5 m.

156. Recommended valve of camber for water bound macadam roads of heavy rainfall.

A) 1 in 30

B) 1 in 36

C) 1 in 48

D) 1 in 60

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The recommended camber for a water-bound macadam road in a heavy rainfall area is 1 in 30.

157. The length of the transition curve depends on

A) SSD and design speed

B) Camber and design speed

C) Radius and design speed

D) Kerb and design speed

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The length of a transition curve is dependent on the radius of the circular curve and the design speed of the vehicle.

158. Intellection time is

A) Time required for final action

B) Time required for emotional sensation

C) Time required for perceive an object

D) Time required for understanding situation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Intellection time is the time required for a driver to understand a situation and decide on a course of action.

159. Kerb indicates the boundary between

A) Pavement and camber

B) Pavement and shoulder

C) Pavement and crown

D) Pavement and Frontage

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A kerb is a raised edge that marks the boundary between the pavement and the shoulder or footpath.

160. PCU stand's for

A) Passenger Car Unit

B) Practical Car Unit

C) Passenger Cart Unit

D) Practical Cart Unit

E) Answer not known

Explanation: PCU is the abbreviation for Passenger Car Unit.

161. SVAMITVA stands for

A) Systematic Validation and Mapping of Indian Territories via Aerial Vehicles

B) Smart Village Asset Mapping and Information Technology for Value Administration

C) Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas

D) Satellite and Visual Assessment for Mapping and Integration of Territorial Village Assets

E) Answer not known

Explanation: SVAMITVA stands for Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas.

162. Identify the following that is NOT included in the calculation of Carpet Area?

A) Balcony area

B) Service area

C) Area of Walls

D) Toilet area

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Area of Walls is not included in the calculation of carpet area, which is the net usable floor area of a house.

163. According to Tamil Nadu combined Development and Building Rules 2019, "High Rise Building" means a building exceeding ____ height.

A) 10.5 m

B) 11.5 m

C) 15.3 m

D) 18.3 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to the Tamil Nadu combined Development and Building Rules 2019, a "High Rise Building" is one that exceeds a height of 18.3 m.

164. Identify the following that is NOT a tier of Panchayati Raj?

A) Gram Panchayat

B) Panchayat Samiti

C) Zilla Parishad

D) Municipal Corporation

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The three tiers of the Panchayati Raj system are the Gram Panchayat, the Panchayat Samiti, and the Zilla Parishad. A Municipal Corporation is a tier of urban local governance, not Panchayati Raj.

165. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides Constitutional status to

A) Panchayats

B) Municipalities

C) District Courts

D) Gram Sabhas

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides constitutional status to Municipalities.

166. Which of the following is 'NOT' a multilateral organization that provide aid/funds to other countries?

A) World Bank

B) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

C) Asian Development Bank

D) US Agency for International Development (USAID)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The World Bank, OECD, and Asian Development Bank are multilateral organizations. USAID is a bilateral agency of the United States government.

167. According to URDPFI, the purpose of ____ plan is to develop vision and provide a policy framework for urban and regional development and further detailing.

A) Regional

B) Development

C) Perspective

D) Local area

E) Answer not known

Explanation: According to URDPFI guidelines, a perspective plan is intended to develop a vision and provide a policy framework for urban and regional development.

168. The Chairperson of CUMTA (Chennai Unified Metropolitan Transport Authority) is

A) Minister of Transport

B) Mayor of Chennai

C) Chief Secretary of Tamil Nadu

D) Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu is the chairperson of the Chennai Unified Metropolitan Transport Authority (CUMTA).

169. Choose the 'Correct' statements from the following list.

1. For a residence with floor area above 75 sq.m, 1 car space have to be provided
2. For a shopping centre with a floor area upto 50 sqm. no car space need to be provided
3. For an auditorium/Kalyana Mandapam, 1 car space and 1 two wheeler space have to be provided for every 10 sq.m
4. For a hospital with floor area above 3000 sq.m, 1 car space and 1 two wheeler space have to be provided for every 50 sq.m.

A) (a) and (b)

B) (a), (b) and (c)

C) (b), (c) and (d)

D) (c) and (d)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Based on parking standards, a residence with a floor area above 75 sqm needs 1 car space, a shopping centre up to 50 sqm needs no car space, and an auditorium needs specific car and two-wheeler spaces. Statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct.

170. Explain the full form of CUMTA

A) Chennai Unified Metro Transport Authority

B) Chennai Urban Mobility and Transit Authority

C) Chennai Unified Metropolitan Transport Authority

D) Chennai Urban Multi-Modal Transport Association

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The full form of CUMTA is the Chennai Unified Metropolitan Transport Authority.

171. In transportation planning Delphi method is used for

A) Judgemental Forecast

B) Time-Series forecast

C) Associative model

D) Time-space method

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Delphi method is a structured communication technique used in transportation planning to obtain a judgemental forecast from a group of experts.

172. Principles of Transit Oriented Development (TOD) is

A) To encourage urban sprawl

B) To promote development around public transit hubs

C) To reduce public transportation usage

D) To create isolated residential areas

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The core principle of Transit Oriented Development (TOD) is to promote development around public transit hubs.

173. Choose the following which is not used for route assignment technique?

A) Intervening opportunity model

B) All or nothing method

C) Diversion curve technique

D) Multiple route assignment technique

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Intervening opportunity model is a model of trip distribution, not a technique for route assignment.

174. This type of survey does not give information about the trip purpose or origin and destination of trip

A) Post card survey

B) Road side interview method

C) Household survey

D) License plate survey

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A license plate survey records vehicle movements but does not provide information about the trip purpose or origin and destination.

175. Choose the right answer which is not the method for trip generation analysis?

A) Multiple linear regression analysis

B) Aggregated and disaggregated analysis

C) Diversion curve method

D) Category analysis

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The diversion curve method is a technique for trip assignment, not trip generation analysis.

176. Parking index is expressed as

A) Turnover curve

B) Accumulation curve

C) Vehicle hours

D) No. of bays occupied/ theoretical number of x 100 bays available

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The parking index is a measure of parking efficiency and is expressed as the ratio of the number of occupied bays to the available bays, multiplied by 100.

177. Bus Rapid Transit System is preferable when ____ buses per hour per direction (bphpd) use the bus way.

A) More than 100

B) Less than 100

C) In between 50 to 100

D) More than 50

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A Bus Rapid Transit (BRT) system is generally preferable when the number of buses per hour per direction is more than 100.

178. Choose any one of the following which is NOT an objective of origin Destination survey?

A) To determine the amount of by passable traffic

B) To develop trip generation and trip distribution models

C) To assess the adequacy of parking facilities

D) To assess the pedestrian pattern

E) Answer not known

Explanation: An origin-destination survey primarily focuses on vehicle movements. Assessing the pedestrian pattern is not a primary objective.

179. Recommended sample size for Home Interview survey of an area having population over 10,00,000

A) 1 in 10 households

B) 1 in 15 households

C) 1 in 20 households

D) 1 in 25 households

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The recommended sample size for a home interview survey in an area with a population over 1,000,000 is 1 in 10 households.

180. In large study of transportation projects, the study area has to be divided in form of

A) Zones

B) Sub-zones

C) Sectors

D) Land parcels

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In a large-scale transportation study, the study area is typically divided into zones.

181. According to NBC, India, the chimneys parapet walls and architectural features not exceeding ____ in height shall not be included in the height of the building.

A) 1 m

B) 1.2 m

C) 1.5 m

D) 1.8 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per NBC, India, architectural features such as chimneys and parapet walls not exceeding 1.5 m in height are typically not included when calculating the total height of a building.

182. If a podium is permitted in a plot of area 1500 m² or more, the height shall not exceed ____.

A) 10 m

B) 15 m

C) 20 m

D) 30 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: In a plot of 1500 $m^2$ or more, if a podium is permitted, its height is typically limited to 15 m.

183. The angular distance of any point of celestial sphere, measured from the horizon, on the great circle passing through the body and the zenith

A) Azimuth

B) Altitude

C) Latitude

D) Longitude

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Altitude is the angular distance of a point on the celestial sphere measured from the horizon.

184. According to TNCD & BR 2019, the minimum width of staircase for a Educational Institution is ____.

A) 0.75 m

B) 0.90 m

C) 1.5 m

D) 2.00 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: As per the Tamil Nadu Combined Development and Building Rules (TNCD & BR) 2019, the minimum width of a staircase for an educational institution is 2.00 m.

185. According to TNCD & BR 2019, the front set back for cottage Industries when the abutting road width is less than 9 m is ____.

A) 6.0 m

B) 4.5 m

C) 3.0 m

D) 1.5 m

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The front setback for cottage industries with an abutting road width of less than 9 m is 3.0 m as per TNCD & BR 2019.

186. For the application for planning permit or Building permit, the site plan draw should be to the scale of not less than ____ for a site upto one hectare.

A) 1:200

B) 1:500

C) 1:1000

D) 1:2000

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The site plan for a site up to one hectare must be drawn to a scale of not less than 1:500.

187. Connaught place, New Delhi was designed by ____.

A) Mehrotra

B) W.H. Nicholas

C) Edwin Lutyens

D) Sir Hebert Baker

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Connaught Place, New Delhi, was designed by Sir Robert Tor Russell under the supervision of Sir Herbert Baker.

Correction Note: The primary designer was Robert Tor Russell, though Sir Herbert Baker was a key figure in the overall design of New Delhi. This response follows the provided source document's answer.

188. The first Architecture school in India

A) Architectural Academy, Bombay

B) The Nagpur School of Architecture

C) Sir J.J. School of Architecture

D) Delhi Polytechnic

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The Sir J.J. School of Architecture in Mumbai is considered the first architecture school in India.

189. Arrange the post modern Architects in the chronological order

1. Gehry
2. Walker
3. Aalto
4. Venturi

A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

C) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

D) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct order based on birth dates is Walker, Aalto, Venturi, and Gehry.

190. IIT Boiler House was designed by ____.

A) Mies Vander Ruhe

B) F.L. Wright

C) Le Corbusier

D) C.F. Morphay

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The IIT Boiler House, located in Chicago, was designed by Ludwig Mies van der Rohe. The option is a shortened form of his name.

191. In the Universal Design and Barrier Free Environment when the viewing Distance is upto 7 metres the size of signage should be ____.

A) 60 mm × 60 mm

B) 100 mm × 100 mm

C) 200 mm × 200 mm

D) 450 mm × 450 mm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For a viewing distance up to 7 meters, the minimum size of a signage should be 200 mm x 200 mm.

192. Match the following - Size of Letters in signages.
Viewing Distance:
(a) 6 meters
(b) 12 meters
(c) 15 meters
(d) 25 meters

Height of letters:
1. 130 mm
2. 80 mm
3. 50 mm
4. 40 mm
5. 25 mm
6. 20 mm

A) 5, 2, 4, 3

B) 6, 4, 3, 2

C) 6, 3, 4, 5

D) 5, 4, 3, 2

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The correct mapping is: (a) 6m to 20mm (6), (b) 12m to 40mm (4), (c) 15m to 50mm (3), and (d) 25m to 80mm (2). The provided answer key `B) 6, 4, 3, 2` matches this.

193. If the sign Background is Red Brick the colour contrast of Sign Boards should be ____.

A) White

B) Black

C) Yellow

D) Green

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For maximum visibility and readability, a white sign board provides the best color contrast against a red brick background.

194. The minimum wheelchair Manoeuvring space on the pull side of the door handle should be ____.

A) 650 mm

B) 700 mm

C) 750 mm

D) 800 mm

E) Answer not known

Explanation: The minimum wheelchair maneuvering space on the pull side of a door handle should be 750 mm.

195. Under the category of Assembly Halls the number of spaces designated for wheelchair users in a seating area when the no. of seats in the seating area is upto 1000

A) 6

B) 8

C) 10

D) 12

E) Answer not known

Explanation: For assembly halls with a seating capacity up to 1000, the minimum number of designated wheelchair user spaces is 10.

196. An area used for a stroll or walk, especially in a public place, as for pleasure or play.

A) Pylon

B) Promenade

C) Portico

D) Propylon

E) Answer not known

Explanation: A promenade is a public area designed for walking or strolling.

197. The articulation of the importance or significance of a form or space by its size, shape or placement relative to the other forms and spaces of the organization

A) Rhythm

B) Axis

C) Symmetry

D) Hierarchy

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Hierarchy in architecture refers to the importance or significance of a form or space, which is articulated by its size, shape, or placement relative to others.

198. "Architecture is the masterly, correct and magnificent play of masses brought together in light. Our eyes are made to see forms in light; light and shade reveals the form is a saying by"

A) Le Corbusier

B) Frank Lyoid Wright

C) Mies Van-rohe

D) Alvar Alto

E) Answer not known

Explanation: This famous quote about architecture and light is from Le Corbusier.

199. The forms which the Habitat Montreal designed by Moshe Safdie depicts is

A) Radial Form

B) Clustered form

C) Linear form

D) Grid form

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Habitat 67, designed by Moshe Safdie, is a residential complex in Montreal that is a prime example of a clustered form of architecture.

200. This element can articulate the penetrable boundaries of spatial zones which mesh easily with adjacent spaces?

A) Architrave

B) Beams

C) Columns

D) Archs

E) Answer not known

Explanation: Columns can be used to articulate the penetrable boundaries of spatial zones, allowing for a seamless connection with adjacent spaces.

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