TNPSC Civil Engineering, Traditional Architecture and Sculpture (Code 510): Answer key
1. Which of the following is wrong? in relating to acid in stone
cleaning
Correct Answer: (A) (i) and (ii)
Explanation:
The statements in (i) and (ii) are incorrect regarding the use of acid
in stone cleaning. Acid cleaning of stone can lead to an obstruction of
evaporation after cleaning and can also cause a change in the surface
hardness of the stone.
2. The cause for the result of efflorescence
Correct Answer: (B) Carbonate from the lime
Explanation:
Efflorescence is caused by soluble salts, such as carbonates from lime,
migrating to the surface of a porous material like masonry or stone as
water evaporates, leaving behind a white, powdery deposit.
3. Regular cleaning of the temple structure can prevent the growth of
Correct Answer: (A) Vegetation
Explanation:
Regularly cleaning a temple structure helps to prevent the growth of
vegetation like moss, algae, and small plants that can cause damage to
the stone and other materials over time.
4. Before commencement of repair or maintenance work in temples, it is
important to investigate
Correct Answer: (A) The stability of the temple building
Explanation:
Before starting any repair or maintenance work on a temple, assessing
the structural stability is essential to ensure safety for both workers
and the monument. This evaluation helps determine whether the structure
can withstand repair activities and prevents further damage during
conservation. Historical information, funds, and weather conditions are
important but secondary considerations after confirming stability.
5. The major damage to the temple building are from
Correct Answer: (A) Water
Explanation:
Water is a primary cause of damage to temple buildings. Water can lead
to various problems, including dampness, efflorescence, and the
structural deterioration of materials like stone and wood. It also
contributes to the growth of vegetation and other biological agents that
cause decay.
6. Choose the right answers:
Correct Answer: (C) (i) and (ii)
Explanation:
Statements (i) and (ii) are considered good practices in temple
preservation. Painting images and color washing are generally avoided to
maintain the original aesthetic and material integrity, while preventing
seepage is crucial for the long-term structural health of the building.
Statement (iii) is incorrect; preservation is highly essential for
temples.
7. Choose the right answer:
Correct Answer: (B) (i) and (ii) only
Explanation:
Statements (i) and (ii) are correct practices for temple preservation.
Converting mandapams into rooms and allowing living quarters within the
temple premises (iii) are generally discouraged as they can alter the
architectural layout, obstruct a devotee's free movement within the
temple, and potentially damage the temple’s sacred and historical value.
8. The amount of damage caused by hydrating salts in
Correct Answer: (C) Plasters and stones
Explanation:
Hydrating salts can cause significant damage to building materials,
especially porous ones like plasters and stones. As the salts
crystallize and re-hydrate, they exert pressure that can break apart the
material's structure, leading to spalling and disintegration.
9. Assertion [A]: Wind causes differential air pressures around a
building depending on the wind velocity and the height and shape of the
structure
Reason [R]: Wind causes the rain to strike the wall and this may leads to air pressure differences across the wall.
Reason [R]: Wind causes the rain to strike the wall and this may leads to air pressure differences across the wall.
Correct Answer: (D) [A] and [R] are true [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Explanation:
Both Assertion [A] and Reason [R] are true statements. Wind indeed
causes differential air pressures around a building, and it also drives
rain to strike walls, which can lead to air pressure differences across
the wall. However, the reason [R] does not directly explain the
assertion [A]. The differential pressure is a direct result of wind flow
dynamics around the building's geometry, while the effect of wind-driven
rain is a separate but related phenomenon.
10. Assertion [A]: Mortar and plaster consist of admixtures such as
sand, crushed stone cemented in a compact mass by lime or cement.
Reason [R]: The durability of mortars and plasters depends on the grain-size distribution of their admixtures.
Reason [R]: The durability of mortars and plasters depends on the grain-size distribution of their admixtures.
Correct Answer: (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
Explanation:
Both the assertion [A] and the reason [R] are correct statements, and
the reason provides the correct explanation for the assertion. Mortar
and plaster are compact masses of materials like sand and crushed stone
bonded together by a binder such as lime or cement (Assertion [A]). The
durability and performance of these materials are significantly
influenced by the size and distribution of the aggregate particles
(Reason [R]). A well-graded mix with a good range of grain sizes will be
more durable and have fewer voids, making the mortar or plaster stronger
and less permeable to water.
11. A non-invasive electromagnetic geophysical technique for surface
exploration, characterization and monitoring is called
Correct Answer: (A) Ground penetrating radar
Explanation:
Ground-penetrating radar (GPR) is a non-invasive electromagnetic
geophysical technique that uses radar pulses to image the subsurface. It
can be used for surface exploration, characterization, and monitoring
without disturbing the ground.
12. The following samprokshanam is done for newly constructed temples
Correct Answer: (B) Anavartam
Explanation:
Anavartam is a type of samprokshanam, a consecration ceremony, that is
performed for newly constructed temples or when a temple is constructed
at a place where no temple existed before.
13. Choose the right matches among type
Correct Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) are correct
Explanation:
In traditional architecture, bricks are sometimes categorized by shape.
Male bricks are typically those with linear edges (i), and female bricks
are those with concave shapes (ii). Neuter bricks are those that are
curved, not the other way around. Thus, options (i) and (ii) are the
correct matches.
14. Stone stitching means
Correct Answer: (C) Resin based and stainless steel
Explanation:
Stone stitching is a technique for repairing cracks in masonry and
stone. It involves drilling holes on either side of the crack, inserting
stainless steel rods, and then bonding them with a resin-based mortar to
tie the fractured parts together.
15. For stone preservation, magnesium fluorosilicate, zinc
fluorosilicate, aluminium fluorosilicate and are important.
Correct Answer: (A) Lead fluorosilicate
Explanation:
To preserve stone, various chemical compounds, including
fluorosilicates, are used. Magnesium fluorosilicate, zinc
fluorosilicate, aluminium fluorosilicate, and lead fluorosilicate are
all compounds used for hardening and preserving stone surfaces.
16. Dirt removal from stone by means of pure water
Correct Answer: (A) Steam cleaning
Explanation:
Steam cleaning is a method of dirt removal from stone that uses only
pure water heated to a high temperature. It is a gentle, non-abrasive
method that effectively cleans surfaces without the use of harsh
chemicals.
17. The walls themselves may also be heated to prevent
Correct Answer: (A) Condensation
Explanation:
Heating walls can prevent condensation. When warm, moist air comes into
contact with a cold wall surface, it can cool and cause water vapor to
condense on the surface, leading to dampness and potential damage.
Heating the wall keeps its surface temperature above the dew point,
thereby preventing condensation.
18. The temples under the H.R. and C.E are called as
Correct Answer: (C) Living monuments
Explanation:
Temples managed by the Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments (H.R.
and C.E.) are often referred to as "living monuments." This term
highlights that these are not merely historical relics but are active
places of worship with ongoing religious, cultural, and social
functions, requiring active management and preservation.
19. Stains on bricks may also be due to
Correct Answer: (A) Efflorescence
Explanation:
While various factors can cause stains on bricks, efflorescence is a
common cause. This is the white, powdery deposit of soluble salts on the
surface of brickwork, often leading to discoloration and staining,
especially after rainfall or damp conditions. Stains can also be caused
by rust, algae, and other chemical reactions.
20. The practice of renovating the existing structures followed for a
long time is called
Correct Answer: (A) Jeernodharana
Explanation:
Jeernodharana is a term in traditional Indian temple architecture and
ritual that refers to the renovation or restoration of an existing,
aging, or damaged temple structure. This practice ensures the temple
remains functional and structurally sound for future generations. It is
part of the established Agama shastra traditions.
21. From the given answers, identify the animals that are supporting the
cross beams of the Eastern ornamental gateway of the Sanchi Maha Stupa.
Correct Answer: (C) Elephants
Explanation:
The eastern ornamental gateway (torana) of the Sanchi Maha Stupa
features cross beams that are supported by sculptures of elephants.
22. Place the given sculptures of the Deogarh Dasavatar temple in their
correct places:
Correct Answer: (B) 3, 4, 2, 1
Explanation:
This question requires matching the sculptures of the Deogarh Dasavatar
temple with their correct locations. The correct match is as follows:
(a) Vishnu seated on the Adisesha-Vahana is in the kostam on the
southern wall of the sanctum (3), (b) Vishnu in a reclining-position on
the Adisesha-Vahana is above the entrance of the sanctum in the middle
(4), (c) Naran-Narayanan sculpture is in the kostam on the northern wall
of the sanctum (2), and (d) Gajendra Moksha sculpture is in the kostam
on the eastern wall of the sanctum (1) .
23. The oldest 'garuda pillar' in India and it is vedic religious
symbol, made of a single stone. This pillar is built in
Correct Answer: (A) Besnagar
Explanation:
The oldest 'garuda pillar' in India, a vedic religious symbol made of a
single stone, is located in Besnagar.
24. Find the number of floors of Anantha Sayanagudi cave temple in
Undavalli, Andhrapradesh.
Correct Answer: (D) Four
Explanation:
The Anantha Sayanagudi cave temple in Undavalli, Andhra Pradesh, has
four floors.
25. The Sanchi great stupa is _________ feet in diameter and _________
feet height.
Correct Answer: (B) 120, 54
Explanation:
The Sanchi Maha Stupa is 120 feet in diameter and 54 feet in height.
26. Match the following with the correct ones:
Correct Answer: (A) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
The correct matches for the parts of a stupa are as follows: Anda is the
main, hemispherical part of the stupa (2). Harmika is the square
platform on top of the hemisphere (1). Vedika is the fence or railing
around the stupa (4). Shobanam is the staircase leading to the platform
that supports the stupa (3).
27. The seals of the Harappan civilization were not made by one of the
following things.
Correct Answer: (C) Iron
Explanation:
Harappan civilization seals were commonly made from terracotta, various
stones, and copper, but not iron. The use of iron in India became
widespread much later than the Harappan period.
28. The four ornamental gateways (toranas) currently found at the sanchi
great stupa were created by the _______ dynasty.
Correct Answer: (B) Shunga
Explanation:
The four ornamental gateways, or toranas, at the Sanchi Great Stupa were
added during the rule of the Shunga dynasty, following the original
construction which is associated with the Mauryan period under Emperor
Ashoka.
29. Among the following cave temples created by chalukyas find the cave
temple with a sanctum in the 'sarvodapatra' style structure with gate on
all four sides.
Correct Answer: (C) Ravanaphadi cave, Aihole
Explanation:
The Ravanaphadi cave in Aihole, built by the Chalukyas, is a unique
example with a sanctum in the 'sarvodapatra' style, meaning it has a
gate on all four sides.
30. Choose the right matches among type.
Correct Answer: (B) (2) and (4) are correct
Explanation:
The correct matches for these terms are: Bana means an arrow, not a
shield. Khadga means sword, which is a correct match (2) . Vajra means
thunderbolt, not a trident. Parasu means battle-axe, which is also a
correct match (4) . Therefore, only (2) and (4) are correct.
31. Match the following:
Correct Answer: (D) 2, 4, 3, 1
Explanation:
The correct matches for these traditional Indian units of measurement
are: 8 paramanus = one nit (liksa) (2). 8 ratharenu = one valagra (tip
of a thin hair) (4). 8 yuka = one liksa (nit) (3). 8 valagra = one yava
(red paddy) (1).
32. The lingam which has a large base and resembles a coconut is called
Correct Answer: (D) Bhanam
Explanation:
A lingam that has a large base and resembles a coconut is called a
Bhanam.
33. Match hair styles with the appropriate deity:
Correct Answer: (C) 2, 1, 3, 4
Explanation:
The correct pairings of hairstyles and deities are as follows: Jada
mandala is a hairstyle associated with Natarajar (2). Charpamavli is
associated with Rishabhantikar (1) . Verisadai is associated with
Kalaimagal (Saraswati) (3). Kesapandam is associated with Dakshinamurthy
(4).
34. From the following state the number of hand gestures mentioned in
the sirpa-shastra texts.
Correct Answer: (C) 32
Explanation:
According to the sirpa-shastra texts, there are 32 hand gestures
mentioned.
35. Assertion [A]: Palagai is supported by the petals of a lotus is
called idal.
Reason [R]: Nagabandham is a little ornament.
Reason [R]: Nagabandham is a little ornament.
Correct Answer: (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
Explanation:
Assertion [A] is a true statement; 'idal' refers to the lotus petals
that support the 'palagai' in traditional architecture . However, the
reason [R] is false; 'nagabandham' is not a small ornament. Therefore,
[A] is true, and [R] is false.
36. The Garbagriha is called
Correct Answer: (D) Mulasthanam
Explanation:
The Garbagriha, which is the innermost sanctum of a Hindu temple where
the primary deity resides, is also known as the Mulasthanam.
37. A Mandapam located in the middle of a temple pond is typically
called a
Correct Answer: (B) Theppa mandapa
Explanation:
A mandapam located in the middle of a temple pond is typically called a
Theppa mandapa. It is used for the floating festival of the deity, where
the idol is placed on a raft (theppam) and taken around the mandapam in
the pond.
38. From the given answers, find the name of the structural system that
comes between the two when the size of the 'Mugamandapa' is equal of the
size of the sanctum.
Correct Answer: (A) Antarala
Explanation:
The structural system that comes between the 'Mugamandapa' (front hall)
and the sanctum is called the Antarala. It serves as an antechamber and
is a key component of temple architecture, connecting the main hall to
the inner sanctum.
39. From the following, identify the element that supports the structure
called 'Stupi' in the temple vimana.
Correct Answer: (B) Sikharam
Explanation:
In a temple vimana, the element that supports the 'Stupi' (the finial or
top-most part) is the Sikharam. The Sikharam is the crowning part of the
temple tower and is located just below the stupi.
40. From the answer given, give the term that refers to digging until
you reach hard rock or hard soil when digging a foundating.
Correct Answer: (A) Silakantham
Explanation:
Silakantham is the term used to describe the practice of digging a
foundation until a hard rock or hard soil layer is reached. This ensures
a stable and durable base for the structure being built.
41. Influence factor for immediate settlement of footing depends on its
Correct Answer: (D) Size, shape, rigidity and location
Explanation:
The influence factor for immediate settlement of a footing is a crucial
parameter in geotechnical engineering. It is not determined by a single
characteristic but is a function of multiple factors, including the
footing's size and shape, its rigidity relative to the soil, and its
location within the soil mass.
42. Ratio of bearing capacity of double under reamed pile to that of
single under reamed pile is nearly
Correct Answer: (B) 2.0
Explanation:
An under-reamed pile is a type of foundation pile with one or more
enlarged bases, or bulbs. A double under-reamed pile has two such bulbs,
which significantly increases its bearing capacity. The ratio of the
bearing capacity of a double under-reamed pile to that of a single
under-reamed pile is approximately 2.0.
43. The hydrated lime called slaked lime is commonly used for
Correct Answer: (B) Soil stabilization
Explanation:
Hydrated lime, also known as slaked lime, is widely used for soil
stabilization. It improves the properties of clayey soils by reducing
their plasticity and swelling potential, increasing their strength, and
making them more workable.
44. If a cone is used to penetrate the subsoil the test is called
Correct Answer: (B) Cone penetration test
Explanation:
The cone penetration test (CPT) is a method used to determine the
geotechnical engineering properties of soils. It involves pushing a cone
penetrometer into the ground at a controlled rate and recording the
resistance encountered.
45. It is assumed that the resultant reaction is tangential to the
friction circle in
Correct Answer: (A) Friction circle method
Explanation:
The friction circle method is a technique used in slope stability
analysis. It is based on the assumption that the resultant reaction on a
sliding surface is tangential to a circle concentric with the slip
surface, known as the friction circle.
46. The usual value of specific gravity for thin liquid of bituminous
material is
Correct Answer: (D) 0.92
Explanation:
The specific gravity of a material is the ratio of its density to the
density of water. The usual value of specific gravity for a thin liquid
bituminous material is approximately 0.92.
47. The joints provided along the strips in rigid pavement construction
are known as
Correct Answer: (B) Longitudinal joints
Explanation:
In rigid pavement construction, which consists of concrete slabs, joints
are placed to control cracking caused by temperature and moisture
changes. The joints provided along the length of the pavement,
separating it into strips, are called longitudinal joints.
48. For aggregates normally used in road construction the water
absorption value varies from
Correct Answer: (A) 0.1 to 1 percent
Explanation:
The water absorption value of aggregates is a measure of their porosity
and is important for the durability and strength of road construction
materials. For aggregates typically used in this application, the water
absorption value usually ranges from 0.1% to 1%.
49. The Bituminous concrete is used as binder course and wearing course.
For medium and heavy traffic, binding course of _______ thickness will
be sufficient.
Correct Answer: (A) 40 mm to 50 mm
Explanation:
Bituminous concrete is a type of pavement material commonly used for
roads. It consists of a binder course, which provides strength, and a
wearing course, which provides a smooth, durable surface. For medium and
heavy traffic, a binding course thickness of 40 mm to 50 mm is generally
considered sufficient.
50. The minimum shoulder width recommended by the IRC is
Correct Answer: (A) 2.50 m
Explanation:
The Indian Road Congress (IRC) provides guidelines for highway design
and construction in India. According to these guidelines, the minimum
recommended shoulder width for roads is 2.50 meters. The shoulder serves
as a safety area for stopped vehicles and provides structural support
for the pavement.
51. The specific gravity of rocks varies from
Correct Answer: (C) 2.6 to 2.9
Explanation:
The specific gravity of rocks is a measure of their density compared to
water. This property is important for various civil engineering
applications, such as foundation design and aggregate production. The
specific gravity of most rocks typically ranges from 2.6 to 2.9.
52. The super elevation (e) is a direct function of the square of the
Correct Answer: (A) $e=V^{2}/127R$
Explanation:
Super elevation is the transverse slope provided on a road section to
counteract the centrifugal force acting on a vehicle moving along a
curve. The formula for super elevation (e) is a direct function of the
square of the velocity (V) and inversely proportional to the radius of
the curve (R).
53. The maximum height of double-decked vehicle recommended by IRC is
Correct Answer: (D) 4.75 m
Explanation:
The Indian Road Congress (IRC) specifies the maximum permissible
dimensions for vehicles to ensure safe passage on roads and through
tunnels, bridges, and other structures. The maximum height recommended
for a double-decked vehicle is 4.75 meters.
54. The curve which shows the distribution of excess hydrostatic
pressure at a given time during the process of consolidation is known as
Correct Answer: (B) Iso chrome
Explanation:
In soil mechanics, consolidation is the process by which soil decreases
in volume under a sustained load. An isochrone is a curve that shows the
distribution of excess hydrostatic pressure within a soil layer at a
specific point in time during this process .
55. An isobar is a curve which
Correct Answer: (B) Joins points of equal vertical stress
Explanation:
In soil mechanics and foundation engineering, an isobar is a contour
line that connects all points in a soil mass that have the same vertical
stress below a loaded area. These curves are useful for visualizing
stress distribution and estimating settlements .
56. The coefficient of permeability of a soil varies as
Correct Answer: (B) $e^{3}/(1+e)=k$
Explanation:
The coefficient of permeability of soil, denoted by k, is a measure of
how easily water can flow through it. The relationship between the
coefficient of permeability and the void ratio (e) of the soil is
approximated by the Kozeny-Carman equation, where k is proportional to
$e^3/(1+e)$.
57. The term density index (or relative density) of a soil $I_D$
Correct Answer: (A) $I_D=(e_{max}-e)/(e_{max}-e_{min})$
Explanation:
The density index, also known as relative density ($I_D$), is a measure
of the relative compactness of a granular soil. It is defined by the
given equation, where $e_{max}$ is the maximum void ratio (loosest
state), $e_{min}$ is the minimum void ratio (densest state), and $e$ is
the current void ratio of the soil.
58. Relative compaction ($R_c$) is
Correct Answer: (A) $R_c=\gamma_d(field)/\gamma_d(max)$
Explanation:
Relative compaction ($R_c$) is a measure of the degree of compaction
achieved in the field compared to the maximum compaction possible in a
laboratory test.
It is expressed as the ratio of the field dry density ($\gamma_d(field)$) to the maximum dry density ($\gamma_d(max)$).
59. A dry soil has mass specific gravity of 1.35. If the specific
gravity of solids is 2.75, then the void ratio will be
Correct Answer: (B) 1.0
Explanation:
Given: Mass specific gravity ($G_{m}$) = 1.35 and specific gravity of
solids ($G_{s}$) = 2.75.
Since the soil is dry, the dry density ($\gamma_{d}$) is equal to the mass density ($\gamma_{m}$).
We know that $\gamma_d = G_m \gamma_w$ and $\gamma_d = G_s \gamma_w / (1+e)$, where $\gamma_w$ is the density of water and $e$ is the void ratio.
From these two equations, we can write $G_m = G_s / (1+e)$.
Rearranging the formula to solve for the void ratio, we get $e = (G_s / G_m) - 1$.
Substituting the given values, $e = (2.75 / 1.35) - 1 = 2.037 - 1 = 1.037$.
Rounding to one decimal place, the void ratio is approximately 1.0.
Therefore, the void ratio will be 1.0 .
60. Soils resulting from rock weathering and not transported but remain
at the place of formation are called
Correct Answer: (B) Residual
Explanation:
Residual soils are formed in place by the weathering of the underlying
rock and have not been transported by water, wind, or ice. They retain
some of the characteristics of the parent rock from which they were
formed.
61. The _________ of a material is equal to thermal resistivity
multiplied by its thickness
Correct Answer: (B) Thermal resistance
Explanation:
Thermal resistance is a measure of a material's ability to resist heat
transfer. It is calculated as the product of the material's thickness
and its thermal resistivity. A higher thermal resistance value indicates
better insulation properties.
62. Scrapers are best suited for haul distance greater than 500 ft but
less than _________ ft
Correct Answer: (D) 3000 ft
Explanation:
Scrapers are heavy equipment used in construction for excavating,
hauling, and spreading soil. They are most efficient for a specific
range of haul distances. Scrapers are considered best suited for haul
distances greater than 500 feet but less than 3000 feet.
63. The process of fresh air is forced into a room and the used air is
allowed to leave room by itself or is extracted by outlet for is called
as
Correct Answer: (B) Supply system
Explanation:
A supply system is a ventilation method where fresh air is actively
forced into a room, and the stale or used air is passively allowed to
leave through natural outlets or is extracted by a fan. The air pressure
in the room is maintained at a positive pressure relative to the
outside. This is in contrast to an exhaust system, where air is actively
removed from the room.
64. For ordinary Portland cement, the curing period is about _________
days
Correct Answer: (A) 14 to 28
Explanation:
Curing is the process of maintaining adequate moisture and temperature
in concrete to ensure proper hydration of the cement. For ordinary
Portland cement (OPC), the curing period is typically recommended to be
about 14 to 28 days to achieve the desired strength and durability.
65. For compressive strength determination of concrete the minimum
number of cubes required in a sample is
Correct Answer: (B) 3
Explanation:
According to standard testing procedures, a minimum of three concrete
cubes are required to be cast and tested from a single sample to
determine the compressive strength of concrete. The average of the three
test results is taken as the strength of the sample, which helps to
account for variations in the cube preparation and testing process.
66. The cementitious character of ground granulated Blast furnace slag
is due to the presence of calcium, magnesium and
Correct Answer: (B) Aluminium
Explanation:
Ground granulated blast-furnace slag (GGBS) is a cementitious material
obtained from iron production. Its cement-like properties are primarily
due to the presence of calcium, magnesium, and aluminum silicates. The
aluminum content, in particular, contributes to its reactive nature when
mixed with water and other cementitious materials.
67. Bleeding of concrete is expressed quantitatively as the percentage
of
Correct Answer: (C) Mixing water
Explanation:
Bleeding in concrete is a phenomenon where water, which is the lightest
component, rises to the surface after the concrete has been placed and
compacted. It is expressed as a percentage of the total mixing water
content in the concrete mix.
68. Compacting factor of concrete is
Correct Answer: (B) Weight of partially compacted / Weight of fully compacted concrete
Explanation:
The compacting factor test is a method used to measure the workability
of fresh concrete. The compacting factor is defined as the ratio of the
weight of partially compacted concrete to the weight of the same
concrete specimen when it is fully compacted. This ratio indicates the
degree of workability, with a higher value signifying more workable
concrete.
69. The flow properties of fresh concrete are mainly depends upon
Correct Answer: (A) Water cement ratio
Explanation:
The flow properties of fresh concrete, often referred to as workability,
are primarily dependent on the water-cement ratio. A higher water-cement
ratio generally leads to a more fluid, workable mix, as the water
lubricates the cement paste, allowing the aggregates to move more
easily. Other factors, such as aggregate shape and grading, also play a
role, but the water-cement ratio is the most significant factor.
70. Vibrating compactors create _________ forces which gives greater
compaction energy than an equalent static load.
Correct Answer: (C) Impact forces
Explanation:
Vibrating compactors are machines used to increase the density of soil
or other materials. They work by creating impact forces through rapid
oscillations or vibrations. These impact forces are more effective than
an equivalent static load in reorienting particles and reducing air
voids, thereby achieving greater compaction energy and a higher density.
71. The _________ property of the super plasticizer is the prime
importance for its effectiveness in reducing water content in portland
cement mixer
Correct Answer: (D) Viscosity
Explanation:
Superplasticizers are chemical admixtures used to significantly increase
the workability of concrete without adding more water. Their
effectiveness in reducing water content in portland cement mixes is
primarily due to their influence on the viscosity of the cement paste.
By reducing the viscosity, they allow for a more fluid mix with less
water, improving strength and durability.
72. For precast paving slab the degree of workability is
Correct Answer: (C) Zero
Explanation:
The degree of workability for concrete used in precast paving slabs is
typically specified as "zero" slump. This is because a very stiff, dry
mix is required to maintain the shape of the slab during the molding and
vibrating process. A mix with zero slump has no measurable vertical
deformation after the slump cone is removed.
73. In the float method of manufacturing of glass, the Melton glass from
the furnace is floated over
Correct Answer: (A) Molten tin
Explanation:
The float glass process is a method for manufacturing high-quality flat
glass. In this process, molten glass from the furnace is poured onto a
bath of molten tin. The glass, being less dense, floats on the tin
surface, and gravity and surface tension cause it to form a perfectly
flat and smooth sheet.
74. Creosote is a
Correct Answer: (B) Wood preservative
Explanation:
Creosote is a dark, oily liquid produced by the distillation of coal
tar. It is a powerful biocide and is widely used as a wood preservative
to protect timber from decay, insects, and fungal attacks, especially
for outdoor applications like railway sleepers and utility poles.
75. _________ is the results from the division of the main stem into two
or more stems at any paint above the root collar.
Correct Answer: (A) Forks
Explanation:
In arboriculture and forestry, a fork is a defect in a tree where the
main trunk divides into two or more stems at a point above the root
collar. These forks can be a point of structural weakness in the tree
and are often a concern for tree stability and safety .
76. Percentage of bulking of fine aggregate =
Correct Answer: (C) $\frac{Bulked~volume-Dry~volume}{Dry~volume} \times 100$
Explanation:
Bulking of sand is the phenomenon where the volume of sand increases due
to the presence of a small amount of moisture. This moisture creates a
film around the sand particles, preventing them from settling closely.
The percentage of bulking is calculated as the increase in volume
(Bulked volume - Dry volume) divided by the original dry volume, and
then multiplied by 100 to express it as a percentage.
77. A knot infected by fungus or insects is known as
Correct Answer: (D) Decayed knot
Explanation:
A knot is a section of a branch or limb that has been incorporated into
the wood of a tree. A knot that has been infected by fungus or insects
and shows signs of decay is known as a decayed knot. This type of defect
weakens the timber and reduces its quality and value.
78. The process of cement hydration involves
Correct Answer: (B) Mixing with water to form a paste
Explanation:
Cement hydration is the chemical reaction that occurs when water is
mixed with cement. This reaction causes the cement to form a paste that
hardens and binds the aggregates together. This process is essential for
the concrete to gain strength and is a key step in concrete production.
79. As per IS 383-1970 very fine aggregate comes under zone no
Correct Answer: (B) IV
Explanation:
Indian Standard (IS) 383-1970 specifies four zones (Zone I, II, III, and
IV) for classifying fine aggregates based on their grading. Zone IV is
designated for very fine aggregates, which are typically used for
plastering and other applications where a smooth finish is required.
80. The crushing strength of sedimentary rock of lime stone is between
Correct Answer: (C) 50 to 60 N/mm²
Explanation:
Crushing strength is a measure of a rock's ability to withstand
compressive loads. The crushing strength of sedimentary rock,
specifically limestone, typically falls between 50 to 60 N/mm² .
81. In Mohori circle graph for maximum principal strain theory obtained
shape is
Correct Answer: (C) Hexagon
Explanation:
The maximum principal strain theory, also known as St. Venant's theory,
is one of the theories of failure used in engineering to predict when a
material will fail under combined stress states. When plotted on a
Mohr's circle graph, this theory is represented by a hexagon.
82. Maximum principal strain theory associated with
Correct Answer: (C) St. Venant theory
Explanation:
The maximum principal strain theory is associated with St. Venant
theory. This theory states that failure will occur when the maximum
principal strain in a body reaches the strain at the yield point in a
simple tension test.
83. If the number of members in a frame are more than (2j-3) is known as
Correct Answer: (C) Redundant frame
Explanation:
In structural analysis, a frame is classified based on the relationship
between the number of members (m) and the number of joints (j). A
redundant frame is one where the number of members is greater than what
is required for a perfect frame, which is defined by the formula m >
(2j-3). A redundant frame has more members than necessary for stability
and is considered statically indeterminate.
84. When tensile stress in zero at a section then the relation between
direct stress and bending stress will be
Correct Answer: (A) $\sigma_{0}=\sigma_{b}$
Explanation:
The total stress at a point in a section subjected to both direct stress
($\sigma_0$) and bending stress ($\sigma_b$) is the sum of the two.
Tensile stress is considered positive. If the total tensile stress is
zero, it means the compressive stress from the direct load is equal to
the tensile stress from bending, which can be expressed as $\sigma_0 =
\sigma_b$. This is the condition for a neutral axis.
85. State the resultant stress $\sigma_{R}$ when a member subjected to
two like direct stresses in two mutually perpendicular direction, then
the stresses on an oblique plane inclined at an angle
Correct Answer: (C) $\sqrt{\sigma_n^{2} + \sigma_t^{2}}$
Explanation:
When a member is subjected to two direct stresses in mutually
perpendicular directions, the stresses on an oblique plane are a normal
stress ($\sigma_n$) and a tangential stress ($\sigma_t$). The resultant
stress ($\sigma_R$) is the vector sum of these two stresses and is given
by the formula $\sigma_R = \sqrt{\sigma_n^{2} + \sigma_t^{2}}$.
86. The member is subjected to a simple shear stress '$\tau$' in the
Inclined plane at an angle of $\theta$. The normal stress $\sigma_n=$
Correct Answer: (B) $\tau~sin~2\theta$
Explanation:
When a member is subjected to a simple shear stress '$\tau$', the normal
stress ($\sigma_n$) on an inclined plane at an angle $\theta$ is given
by the formula $\sigma_n = \tau~sin~2\theta$. This is derived from the
stress transformation equations and is a fundamental concept in the
mechanics of materials.
87. The Theory satisfactory for ductile materials is
Correct Answer: (A) Maximum Shear Stress theory
Explanation:
The maximum shear stress theory, also known as Tresca's theory, is the
most satisfactory theory of failure for ductile materials. This is
because ductile materials fail due to yielding, which is a shear
phenomenon. The theory predicts that failure will occur when the maximum
shear stress in a material reaches the shear stress at the yield point
in a simple tension test.
88. The following expressions represents the bending at a Section of the
beam?
Correct Answer: (D) $\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}EI$
Explanation:
The bending moment (M) at a section of a beam is related to its
curvature and material properties. The relationship is given by the
flexural rigidity ($EI$) multiplied by the second derivative of the
deflection curve (y) with respect to the distance along the beam (x),
which is the curvature. Therefore, the expression for bending moment is
$M = EI \frac{d^2y}{dx^2}$.
89. Tensile strain is
Correct Answer: (A) Increase in length/Original length
Explanation:
Strain is a measure of deformation. Tensile strain is the measure of how
much a material has stretched or elongated under a tensile load. It is
defined as the increase in length divided by the original length of the
object.
90. A cantilever beam loaded at free end, the Bending moment Diagram is
Correct Answer: (B) A triangle
Explanation:
A cantilever beam is a beam supported at only one end. When a cantilever
beam is subjected to a point load at its free end, the bending moment is
zero at the free end and increases linearly to a maximum value at the
fixed support. This linear variation results in a triangular shape for
the bending moment diagram.
91. The slope at both ends of the fixed Beam is
Correct Answer: (C) Zero
Explanation:
A fixed beam is a beam that is rigidly supported at both ends. Due to
this rigid support, the ends of the beam cannot rotate. Therefore, the
slope (angular displacement) at both ends of a fixed beam is always
zero.
92. If a member is subjected to a uniform Bending moment (M), the radius
of curvature of the differences form of the member is given by
Correct Answer: (A) $\frac{M}{I}=\frac{E}{R}$
Explanation:
The flexural formula, also known as the bending equation, relates the
bending moment (M), modulus of elasticity (E), moment of inertia (I),
and radius of curvature (R) of a beam. It is expressed as
$\frac{M}{I}=\frac{E}{R}$.
93. Section modulus of circular Section is
Correct Answer: (C) $\frac{\pi d^{3}}{32}$
Explanation:
The section modulus (Z) is a geometric property of a section that
determines its resistance to bending. For a circular section with
diameter (d), the section modulus is calculated as $Z =
\frac{I}{y_{max}}$, where I is the moment of inertia and $y_{max}$ is
the distance from the neutral axis to the outermost fiber. For a
circular section, $I = \frac{\pi d^4}{64}$ and $y_{max} = \frac{d}{2}$.
Therefore, the section modulus is $Z = \frac{\pi d^4 / 64}{d / 2} =
\frac{\pi d^3}{32}$.
94. A load acting at a point is known as
Correct Answer: (C) Point load
Explanation:
In structural engineering, loads are classified by how they are
distributed. A load that is concentrated and acts over a very small
area, and is thus considered to be acting at a single point, is known as
a point load or a concentrated load.
95. The number of elastic constants of a linear, elastic, Isotropic
material will be
Correct Answer: (C) 2
Explanation:
An isotropic material is one whose properties are the same in all
directions. For a linear, elastic, and isotropic material, only two
independent elastic constants are required to define its behavior. These
can be any two of the following: Young's modulus (E), shear modulus (G),
bulk modulus (K), and Poisson's ratio ($\nu$) .
96. If equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it,
the stress so produced is called
Correct Answer: (B) Tensile stress
Explanation:
Stress is the internal force per unit area within a body that develops
to resist an external load. When a body is subjected to equal and
opposite forces that tend to pull it apart or elongate it, the internal
stress generated is called tensile stress.
97. A Body of weight W is placed on an inclined rough plane the
inclination of the plane, with the horizontal is less than the angle of
friction. The Body will
Correct Answer: (A) Be in Equilibrium
Explanation:
The angle of friction is the maximum angle at which a body can be
inclined on a rough plane without sliding down. If the inclination of
the plane is less than the angle of friction, the component of the
body's weight acting along the plane is not sufficient to overcome the
static friction force. Therefore, the body will remain in equilibrium
and will not move.
98. Dry Friction otherwise called as
Correct Answer: (D) Solid Friction
Explanation:
Dry friction, also known as Coulomb friction or solid friction, is the
force that opposes the relative motion of two solid surfaces in contact.
It can be further divided into static friction (when surfaces are
stationary) and kinetic friction (when they are in motion).
99. A body is consisted of _________ number of particles.
Correct Answer: (B) Finite
Explanation:
In physics and mechanics, a body is considered to be composed of a
finite number of particles. This is a fundamental assumption for many
calculations and theories, as it allows for the analysis of the body as
a whole by considering the interactions of its constituent parts. An
infinite number of particles would be a continuous medium, which is a
different type of model.
100. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
Correct Answer: (B) Acceleration
Explanation:
A vector quantity is a physical quantity that has both magnitude and
direction. Acceleration is a vector quantity because it describes the
rate of change of velocity, which includes both the change in speed
(magnitude) and the change in direction. In contrast, density, mass, and
volume are all scalar quantities, as they only have magnitude.
101. Thirunavukkarasar mentioned the unique architectural features of a
temple in Tevaram
Correct Answer: (B) Karkoil
Explanation:
Thirunavukkarasar, one of the Nayanars, mentioned the unique
architectural feature of a temple called 'Karkoil' in his devotional
hymns, the Tevaram. A Karkoil is a temple that is built entirely of
stone, from the foundation to the vimana.
102. Out of Paripadal, Seventy songs Eight songs are dedicated to Lord
Correct Answer: (A) Muruga
Explanation:
The ancient Tamil literary work, Paripadal, originally contained seventy
songs. Of these, eight songs are dedicated to Lord Muruga.
103. During the pratisha of Kali Temple, Kulothunga - I used which kind
of stone as mentioned in Kalingathu Parani
Correct Answer: (C) Gems of defeated enemy's queens
Explanation:
The Tamil epic Kalingathu Parani mentions that during the consecration
(pratisha) of the Kali Temple, King Kulothunga I used gems from the
queens of his defeated enemies. This was meant to be a symbol of his
victory and power.
104. How I can be able to describe about the town that has high towers
and castle that touches the clouds which was that town?
Correct Answer: (A) Ayothya
Explanation:
The city of Ayothya is described in ancient texts as a city with high
towers and castles that seem to touch the clouds. This poetic
description emphasizes the city's grandeur and its magnificent
architecture.
105. Assertion [A]: Tevaram Portrays Siva in the company of his consort
and son.
Reason [R]: The Somaskanda form represents Siva and uma shown seated in Sukhasana pose with Skanda between them.
Reason [R]: The Somaskanda form represents Siva and uma shown seated in Sukhasana pose with Skanda between them.
Correct Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
Explanation:
Both the assertion [A] and the reason [R] are true, and the reason
provides the correct explanation for the assertion. The Tevaram hymns
often depict Lord Shiva with his consort and son (Assertion [A]). This
form is known as Somaskanda, which specifically shows Shiva and Uma
seated in the Sukhasana pose with their son Skanda (Subrahmanya) between
them (Reason [R]).
106. The term 'Kottam' mentioned in the following section of
Silappathikaram
Correct Answer: (A) Vettuvavari
Explanation:
The term 'Kottam,' which refers to a temple or shrine, is mentioned in
the Vettuvavari section of the ancient Tamil epic Silappathikaram .
107. Assertion [A]: The pancaratra texts contains the construction of
temple, making of the idols and their installations.
Reason [R]: These topics are brought under the third division of the Agama called Kriyapada.
Reason [R]: These topics are brought under the third division of the Agama called Kriyapada.
Correct Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
Explanation:
Both the assertion [A] and the reason [R] are true, and the reason
provides the correct explanation. The Pancaratra texts contain detailed
instructions on temple construction, idol making, and installation
(Assertion [A]). These topics fall under the Kriyapada, which is the
third division of the Agama texts that deals with the practical aspects
of ritual and temple construction (Reason [R]).
108. Trivikrama sculpture should have
Correct Answer: (C) four arms
Explanation:
The Trivikrama form of Vishnu is a popular subject in sculpture. In this
form, Lord Vishnu is typically depicted with four arms.
109. The Recognized incarnations of Vishnu
Correct Answer: (C) 10 (Ten)
Explanation:
The most widely recognized incarnations (avatars) of Vishnu are ten in
number, known as the Dasavatara. These incarnations are Matsya, Kurma,
Varaha, Narasimha, Vamana, Parashurama, Rama, Krishna, Buddha, and
Kalki.
110. Choose the right answers:
Correct Answer: (C) (i), (ii), (iii)
Explanation:
All three statements are correct regarding the Vaikanasa Agamas. The
Vaikanasa Agamas are a set of texts that deal with the worship of Lord
Vishnu. They provide detailed instructions for the worship of the Lord
in a tangible or concrete form (i). They also explain the procedures for
selecting a site, constructing a temple, and choosing the right
materials (ii). Furthermore, they provide a guide for the installation
of idols and the rituals of worship (iii).
111. Assertion [A]: Salagrama can be used in the place of the idol.
Reason [R]: It is a stone circular in shape and is black in colour.
Reason [R]: It is a stone circular in shape and is black in colour.
Correct Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true
Explanation:
Both the assertion and the reason are true statements, but the reason is
not a direct explanation of the assertion. A Salagrama is a sacred
stone, typically black and circular, that is considered a natural
representation of Lord Vishnu. Because of its sacred nature, it is used
as a substitute for an idol in worship (Assertion [A]). The description
of its physical properties (Reason [R]) is accurate, but it does not
fully explain why it can be used in place of an idol; its sanctity is
the primary reason. Hence, both statements are true, but the reason is
not the correct explanation.
112. Choose the right answer:
Correct Answer: (A) (ii) and (iii)
Explanation:
Statement (ii) is correct, as Sri and Bhudevi are the two primary
consorts of Lord Vishnu. Statement (iii) is also correct, as the concept
of the seven mothers is recognized within the Pancaratra tradition.
However, statement (i) is incorrect. The consorts of the Vyuha deities
are often identified as Lakshmi and other associated goddesses, but not
in this specific combination with Jaya and Maya.
113. _________ refers to one of the twenty-eight Siddhantagama.
Correct Answer: (C) Suprahbedagama
Explanation:
The Siddhantagamas are a collection of texts that form the basis of
Shaivism. The Suprahbedagama is one of the twenty-eight Siddhantagamas,
which detail various aspects of worship, philosophy, and temple
construction.
114. Mudras are mentioned in the following Agama
Correct Answer: (C) Pancaratra Agama
Explanation:
The Pancaratra Agama is a set of Vaishnava texts. It contains a detailed
discussion of mudras, which are ritualistic hand gestures used in
worship and meditation.
115. The Four Padas are not included in the following Agamas
Correct Answer: (A) Kamika Agama
Explanation:
The Four Padas (Jñana, Yoga, Kriya, and Carya) form the standard
structure of many Agamic texts. The Kamika Agama, a prominent Shaiva
text, includes these four padas. All of the listed Agamas follow this
structure, so the question as posed may have an issue.
116. 'Agama rupinyai namah' means
Correct Answer: (B) Devi is the form of the Agamas
Explanation:
The phrase 'Agama rupinyai namah' is a mantra that translates to
"Salutations to her who is the form of the Agamas." This phrase is a
devotional expression used to worship the Goddess (Devi) as the
embodiment of the sacred Agamas.
117. Temple worship Rituals were elaborated from the period of
Correct Answer: (A) The Pallavas
Explanation:
The Pallava period (c. 275 CE to 897 CE) is considered a significant era
for the development of temple architecture and rituals. During this
time, the construction of stone temples and the codification of worship
rituals became more elaborate and formalized, laying the groundwork for
later dynasties.
118. To understand the temple structure this knowledge is necessary
Correct Answer: (B) Agamic
Explanation:
The Agamas are a vast collection of Sanskrit scriptures that provide a
detailed framework for temple construction, iconography, and rituals. To
understand the structure and symbolism of a traditional Hindu temple,
knowledge of Agamic traditions is essential.
119. Choose the wrong answer:
Correct Answer: (B) (iii) only
Explanation:
Statement (iii) is the incorrect one. The term 'Tantra' is closely
related to the Agamas and is a system of spiritual practice that aims to
harness and integrate universal energy, not to avoid it. Thus, the
system of tantra does not avoid universal energy, but rather works with
it.
120. Tirumular mentioned the number of Agamas in his Tirumantra
Correct Answer: (D) 28
Explanation:
Tirumular, a revered Tamil saint and poet, mentioned the number of
Agamas as twenty-eight in his seminal work, the Tirumandiram.
121. The thickness of gusset plate is usually designed to be
proportional to
Correct Answer: (D) Thickness of the connected member
Explanation:
A gusset plate is a flat plate used to connect members of a truss or
frame. The thickness of a gusset plate is typically designed to be
proportional to the thickness of the members it connects to ensure a
strong and reliable joint. This ensures that the joint has a similar
load-carrying capacity as the members themselves.
122. As per IS 800: 2007, the design strength due to yielding of the
gross section of tension member is
Correct Answer: (A) $T_{dg}=\frac{A_{g}f_{y}}{r_{mo}}$
Explanation:
According to IS 800:2007, which is the Indian Standard for steel
structures, the design strength of a tension member due to yielding of
the gross section ($T_{dg}$) is calculated using the formula
$T_{dg}=\frac{A_{g}f_{y}}{r_{mo}}$. Here, $A_g$ is the gross
cross-sectional area, $f_y$ is the yield stress of the material, and
$r_{mo}$ is the partial safety factor for the material's strength.
123. Penetration of weld is better in _________ type of welding.
Correct Answer: (C) Submerged Arc Welding (SAW)
Explanation:
Weld penetration refers to the depth to which the weld metal extends
into the base metal. Submerged Arc Welding (SAW) provides better weld
penetration compared to other welding types. This is because the arc is
submerged under a layer of granular flux, which protects it from
atmospheric contamination and allows for the use of high welding
currents, leading to deeper penetration.
124. As per IS 800: 2007 transverse stiffness provided is considered
unstiffened when spacing of stiffness is greater than
Correct Answer: (C) 3d
Explanation:
In structural engineering, stiffeners are used in plate girders to
prevent buckling. According to IS 800:2007, a transverse stiffener is
considered ineffective or "unstiffened" if the spacing between the
stiffeners is greater than 3d, where 'd' is the depth of the girder.
This is because the plate may still buckle between the stiffeners if the
spacing is too large.
125. Permissible Max vertical deflection of gantry girders, using
manually operated crave is
Correct Answer: (C) L/500
Explanation:
Gantry girders are beams used to support cranes. The maximum permissible
vertical deflection is a critical design parameter to ensure the safe
and proper operation of the crane. For a gantry girder with a manually
operated crane, the maximum vertical deflection is specified as L/500,
where 'L' is the span of the girder.
126. As per IS 805 - 1995, a minimum thickness of the steel section to
account for corrosion of roof plates over 9.0 m diameter tank is
Correct Answer: (D) 8 mm
Explanation:
IS 805:1995 provides guidelines for the design and construction of steel
structures. It specifies minimum thicknesses for various structural
elements to account for corrosion and ensure durability. For the roof
plates of a steel tank with a diameter greater than 9.0 m, the minimum
thickness to account for corrosion is 8 mm.
127. The function of longitudinal reinforcement in a column are
Correct Answer: (A) To resist tensile stresses caused in column due to eccentric load, moment (or) transverse load
Explanation:
In a reinforced concrete column, the primary function of longitudinal
reinforcement is to resist the tensile stresses that can be induced by
eccentric loads, bending moments, or transverse loads. While it also
contributes to the column's compressive strength and helps resist
buckling, its main role is to handle these tensile forces.
128. The ratio of effective length of the column to its least lateral
dimension is not less than 12, it is termed as
Correct Answer: (A) Long column
Explanation:
In column design, the ratio of a column's effective length to its least
lateral dimension is a key parameter that determines whether it is a
short or a long column. If this ratio is not less than 12, the column is
classified as a long column. Long columns are more susceptible to
buckling and require different design considerations than short columns.
129. The effective length of column, which is effectively held in
position at both ends and restrained against rotation at one end.
Correct Answer: (C) 0.7 l
Explanation:
The effective length ($l_e$) of a column is a concept used in buckling
analysis. It depends on the end conditions of the column. For a column
that is effectively held in position at both ends but restrained against
rotation at only one end, the effective length is taken as 0.7 times its
actual length (l).
130. As per IS 456: 2000, the minimum number of longitudinal bars to be
used in circular column is
Correct Answer: (B) 6
Explanation:
IS 456:2000 is the Indian Standard code of practice for plain and
reinforced concrete. According to the code, the minimum number of
longitudinal reinforcement bars that should be used in a circular column
is 6.
131. If ratio of effective length to least lateral dimension of column
is less than 12, then it should be designed as
Correct Answer: (B) Short column
Explanation:
A column is classified as a short column if the ratio of its effective
length to its least lateral dimension is less than 12. Short columns
primarily fail due to crushing, not buckling, so they are designed to
handle compressive loads without buckling.
132. The total settlement of a footing in a clay is
Correct Answer: (B) $S=S_{i}+S_{c}+S_{s}$
Explanation:
The total settlement (S) of a footing in clay soil is the sum of three
components: immediate elastic settlement ($S_i$), primary consolidation
settlement ($S_c$), and secondary consolidation settlement ($S_s$).
Immediate settlement occurs as soon as the load is applied, primary
consolidation occurs over time as water is squeezed out of the clay, and
secondary consolidation is a long-term creep-like settlement.
133. As per IS 1343-2012, High strength prestressed concrete grade
starts from grade
Correct Answer: (D) M-35
Explanation:
IS 1343:2012 provides specifications for prestressed concrete. According
to this standard, the use of high-strength prestressed concrete begins
from grade M35. This grade and higher are required for prestressed
applications due to the high stresses involved.
134. Uniformly distributed load on a concrete beam can be effectively
counter balanced by selecting
Correct Answer: (C) Parabolic cable
Explanation:
In prestressed concrete beams, the prestressing force in the cables is
used to counteract the effects of external loads. A uniformly
distributed load on a beam creates a parabolic bending moment diagram.
To effectively counteract this, a cable with a parabolic profile is
used, as it induces an upward force that mimics the shape of the load.
135. As per IS 456: 2000, permissible shear stress ($\tau_{C}$) in M25
grade concrete beams with tensile reinforcement above 3.0% (No shear
reinforcement) is
Correct Answer: (C) $0.60~N/mm^{2}$
Explanation:
IS 456:2000 provides tables for the design shear strength of concrete
beams. For an M25 grade concrete beam with a tensile reinforcement
percentage of 3.0% or more, the permissible shear stress ($\tau_{C}$) is
$0.60~N/mm^{2}$. This value is the maximum allowable shear stress that
the concrete itself can withstand without additional shear
reinforcement.
136. As per IS 456: 2000, for bars in compression, development length
$L_d$ is given by $L_d=$
Correct Answer: (D) $\frac{\phi\sigma_{sc}}{4\tau_{bd}}$
Explanation:
The development length ($L_d$) is the minimum length of a reinforcement
bar that must be embedded in concrete to ensure that the stress in the
bar can be transmitted to the concrete without slipping. As per IS
456:2000, for bars in compression, the development length is given by
the formula $L_d = \frac{\phi\sigma_{sc}}{4\tau_{bd}}$. Here, $\phi$ is
the nominal diameter of the bar, $\sigma_{sc}$ is the compressive stress
in the bar, and $\tau_{bd}$ is the design bond stress.
137. When actual reinforcement is more than theoretically required, so
that actual stress ($\sigma_s$) of steel less than full resistance, the
development length may be reduced by the relation. Development length is
per IS 456: 2000. Reduced development length =
Correct Answer: (A) $L_{dr}=L_{d}(\frac{A_{st}~required}{A_{st}~provided})$
Explanation:
In reinforced concrete design, if more reinforcement is provided than
theoretically required, the actual stress in the steel will be lower.
This means a smaller development length is needed to transfer the force
to the concrete. As per IS 456:2000, the reduced development length
($L_{dr}$) is calculated by multiplying the standard development length
($L_d$) by the ratio of the required area of steel ($A_{st}~required$)
to the provided area of steel ($A_{st}~provided$).
138. The economical depth of T-beam is
Correct Answer: (B) $d=\sqrt{\frac{r.M}{\sigma_{st} j b_{w}}}$
Explanation:
The economical depth (d) of a T-beam is a design consideration that
balances cost and structural efficiency. The formula to determine this
depth involves the cost ratio of steel to concrete (r), the bending
moment (M), the permissible stress in steel ($\sigma_{st}$), the lever
arm (j), and the width of the web ($b_w$). The correct expression is
$d=\sqrt{\frac{r.M}{\sigma_{st} j b_{w}}}$.
139. As per IS 456:2000 minimum mild steel reinforcement in either of
the total cross direction in slabs shall not be less than _________
sectional area.
Correct Answer: (B) 0.15%
Explanation:
According to IS 456:2000, a minimum amount of reinforcement is required
in concrete slabs to control cracking and provide adequate strength. For
mild steel reinforcement, the minimum area of steel in both directions
of the slab must not be less than 0.15% of the total cross-sectional
area.
140. The permissible direct tensile stress for M15 grade concrete shall
not be greater than
Correct Answer: (C) $2.8~N/mm^{2}$
Explanation:
The permissible direct tensile stress, also known as the modulus of
rupture or flexural strength, is a measure of concrete's ability to
resist tensile forces. For M15 grade concrete, this value is specified
not to be greater than $2.8~N/mm^{2}$. This value is an important
parameter in the design of concrete structures where tensile forces are
a concern.
141. What is the range land fill site located from an Airport or airbase
does not require any approval from airport or airbase authorities under
municipal solid waste rules 2000?
Correct Answer: (A) Beyond 20 km
Explanation:
Under the Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000, a landfill site located
beyond 20 km from the nearest airport or airbase does not require any
specific approval from the airport or airbase authorities. This rule is
in place to prevent bird activity at the landfill from interfering with
aircraft operations.
142. Acceptable noise levels (dBA) for hospital (ward) is as per WHO is
Correct Answer: (B) 30-40 (dBA)
Explanation:
The World Health Organization (WHO) provides guidelines for noise levels
in various environments to protect public health. For a hospital ward,
which requires a quiet environment for patient recovery, the acceptable
noise level is between 30-40 dBA. This low noise level minimizes
disruption to patients and staff.
143. Total volume of wastewater generated per litre of alcohol produced
is in the range of any one of the following is
Correct Answer: (A) 50-70 litres
Explanation:
Industrial processes, particularly in distilleries, produce a
significant amount of wastewater. The total volume of wastewater
generated per litre of alcohol produced is typically in the range of
50-70 litres. This wastewater is highly polluted and requires proper
treatment before discharge.
144. Considering the following statements the approximate analysis of
waste water from a typical pulp and paper mill;
Correct Answer: (C) (1) and (4)
Explanation:
An approximate analysis of wastewater from a typical pulp and paper mill
reveals specific characteristics. The pH value is typically in the range
of 8.0-9.0 (1), and the Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is high, ranging
from 3,000 to 25,000 mg/l (4). The values for total solids and suspended
solids are also high but the numbers provided in (2) and (3) are
incorrect. The high COD and alkaline pH make this wastewater
particularly challenging to treat.
145. The most favourable initial C/N ratio for rapid composting and
provide necessary nitrogen in available form in the finished compost is
Correct Answer: (B) 30
Explanation:
Composting is the process of decomposing organic waste. The
carbon-to-nitrogen (C/N) ratio is a crucial factor in this process. A
ratio of approximately 30 is considered the most favorable for rapid
composting, as it provides a good balance for the microorganisms to
break down the organic material efficiently. This ratio also ensures
that there is enough nitrogen available in the finished compost for
plant use.
146. An average sewage contains about _________ percent pure water.
Correct Answer: (C) 99.9
Explanation:
Despite its appearance and odor, an average sewage consists of about
99.9% pure water. The remaining 0.1% consists of solids, which are the
main cause of pollution and require treatment before the water can be
safely discharged back into the environment.
147. The stone ware pipe sewer should safely stand up to a hydraulic
pressure of
Correct Answer: (A) $1.4~kg/cm^{2}$
Explanation:
Stoneware pipes are a type of sewer pipe known for their durability and
resistance to chemical corrosion. They are designed to withstand a
certain amount of hydraulic pressure. A stoneware pipe sewer should
safely stand up to a hydraulic pressure of $1.4~kg/cm^{2}$.
148. While the per capita consumption for water supply is kept at a
minimum of 135 litres per capita per day (lped), the sewers should be
designed for a maximum flow of
Correct Answer: (B) 110 lped
Explanation:
Sewers are designed to handle wastewater flow, which is typically a
fraction of the total water supplied. While the minimum per capita water
supply is 135 lped, a portion of this water is consumed or lost.
Therefore, sewers are designed for a maximum flow of 110 lped, which
accounts for the actual wastewater generated.
149. For a town with a population over 2,00,000 or where buildings of
three or more storeys are common, the minimum residual pressure head
should be
Correct Answer: (B) 10.5 m above the ground level
Explanation:
In water supply systems, the residual pressure head is the pressure
remaining in the pipes after the water has reached the consumer. For a
large town or one with multi-storey buildings, a higher pressure is
needed to ensure water reaches all floors. The minimum residual pressure
head is specified as 10.5 m above the ground level to meet these
requirements.
150. Considering the following statements: A lamp hole is usually of
small openings on lines of Sewer to (1) permit the insertion of a lamp
into the Sewer (2) detect any obstructions inside the Sewer (3) stop the
insertion of a lamp into the Sewer (4) stop the detection of
obstructions inside the Sewer. Which of the above statements are
correct?
Correct Answer: (A) (1) and (2)
Explanation:
A lamp hole is a small opening in a sewer line that is used for
inspection purposes. The name comes from its function: a lamp is lowered
into the hole, and a person at the next manhole can see the light,
indicating that the sewer line is clear. Therefore, its purpose is to
permit the insertion of a lamp (1) and to detect any obstructions (2).
151. Consider the following statements, It is evident from the
Time-Intensity Frequency curves, the intensity of rainfall is
Correct Answer: (C) Inversely proportional to the duration of rainfall
Explanation:
Time-Intensity-Frequency (TIF) curves, also known as
Intensity-Duration-Frequency (IDF) curves, are a graphical
representation of rainfall data. From these curves, it is evident that
the intensity of rainfall is inversely proportional to its duration.
This means that shorter, more intense rainfall events are more common,
while long-duration events tend to have lower intensity .
152. Let, $V=$ Velocity of flow at the outlet of pipe. Head loss at
outlet of pipe '$h_0$' is calculated from any one of the following
equation
Correct Answer: (D) $h_0=\frac{V^{2}}{2g}$
Explanation:
In fluid mechanics, head loss is a measure of the energy loss in a fluid
flow due to friction and other factors. The head loss at the outlet of a
pipe ($h_0$) is a type of minor loss that is calculated using the
formula $h_0 = \frac{V^{2}}{2g}$, where $V$ is the velocity of the flow
and $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity. This is also known as the
velocity head.
153. In fresh water which has a density of $1000~kg/m^{3}$, the pressure
at a depth of 10 m is
Correct Answer: (D) $98.1~kN/m^{2}$
Explanation:
The hydrostatic pressure at a certain depth in a fluid is calculated
using the formula $P = \rho g h$, where $P$ is the pressure, $\rho$ is
the density of the fluid, $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity
($9.81~m/s^2$), and $h$ is the depth. Given a density of $1000~kg/m^3$
and a depth of 10 m, the pressure is $P = (1000~kg/m^3) \times
(9.81~m/s^2) \times (10~m) = 98100~N/m^2 = 98.1~kN/m^2$.
154. The process, thereby the Earth's water balance is maintained
between precipitation and evaporation continue for ever, known as
Correct Answer: (C) Hydrological Cycle
Explanation:
The hydrological cycle, also known as the water cycle, is the continuous
movement of water on, above, and below the surface of the Earth.
This process, which includes precipitation and evaporation, maintains the Earth's water balance and is essential for all life on the planet.
This process, which includes precipitation and evaporation, maintains the Earth's water balance and is essential for all life on the planet.
155. Hardness of water is _________ present in water.
Correct Answer: (A) Alkalinity
Explanation:
Hardness of water is a measure of the concentration of dissolved
minerals, primarily calcium and magnesium. These minerals are typically
in the form of carbonates and bicarbonates, which contribute to the
alkalinity of the water.
Therefore, the hardness of water is directly related to its alkalinity.
Therefore, the hardness of water is directly related to its alkalinity.
156. Considering Indian Standard Drinking Water specification (IS -
10500: 1991); Match List I (Characteristics) with List II (Permissible
limits) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
Correct Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation:
According to the Indian Standard Drinking Water specification
(IS-10500:1991), the permissible limits for the specified
characteristics are as follows: (a) Colour (Hazen) has a permissible
limit of 10 (1). (b) Turbidity (NTu) has a permissible limit of 25 (2).
(c) Chlorides (mg/l) have a permissible limit of 600 (3). (d) Total
Hardness (mg/l) has a permissible limit of 1000 (4).
157. Specific speed 'Ns' for pumps is determined from any one of the
following equation is
Correct Answer: (A) $N_s=\frac{NQ^{1/2}}{Hp^{3/4}}$
Explanation:
The specific speed ($N_s$) of a pump is a parameter that characterizes
its performance and is used to select the appropriate type of pump for a
given application.
It is defined by the formula $N_s=\frac{NQ^{1/2}}{Hp^{3/4}}$. Here, $N$ is the rotational speed, $Q$ is the discharge, and $H_p$ is the total head developed by the pump.
It is defined by the formula $N_s=\frac{NQ^{1/2}}{Hp^{3/4}}$. Here, $N$ is the rotational speed, $Q$ is the discharge, and $H_p$ is the total head developed by the pump.
158. Let, the water containing uniformly distributed sediment enters
into a horizontally flowing rectangular tank with a uniform velocity 'V.
If Q is the discharge entering the basin, the flow velocity 'V' is given
as;
Correct Answer: (B) $V=\frac{Q}{B\cdot H}$
Explanation:
In a rectangular tank, the flow velocity ($V$) is related to the
discharge ($Q$) and the cross-sectional area of the flow.
The cross-sectional area is the product of the width ($B$) and the depth ($H$) of the tank.
Therefore, the flow velocity is given by the equation $V=\frac{Q}{B \cdot H}$.
The cross-sectional area is the product of the width ($B$) and the depth ($H$) of the tank.
Therefore, the flow velocity is given by the equation $V=\frac{Q}{B \cdot H}$.
159. Run-off is the water which flows
Correct Answer: (A) In streams
Explanation:
Runoff is the portion of precipitation that flows over the ground
surface and into streams, rivers, and other bodies of water.
It is a key component of the water cycle and is distinct from water flowing in man-made structures like sewer pipes.
It is a key component of the water cycle and is distinct from water flowing in man-made structures like sewer pipes.
160. The bio chemical treatment of sewage effluent is a process of
Correct Answer: (B) Oxidation
Explanation:
Biochemical treatment of sewage effluent involves using microorganisms
to break down and stabilize organic matter.
This process is essentially a controlled oxidation, where the microorganisms consume the organic pollutants in the presence of oxygen, converting them into more stable compounds.
This is a fundamental step in most modern wastewater treatment plants.
This process is essentially a controlled oxidation, where the microorganisms consume the organic pollutants in the presence of oxygen, converting them into more stable compounds.
This is a fundamental step in most modern wastewater treatment plants.
161. Which of the following is not an assumption in plastic theory?
Correct Answer: (B) Strain hardening is considered
Explanation:
Plastic theory is a method of structural analysis that accounts for the
plastic behavior of materials. One of its key assumptions is that strain
hardening is negligible.
The theory simplifies the stress-strain curve by assuming that once the material reaches its yield point, it continues to deform without an increase in stress.
This is in contrast to elastic theory, which assumes a linear stress-strain relationship.
The theory simplifies the stress-strain curve by assuming that once the material reaches its yield point, it continues to deform without an increase in stress.
This is in contrast to elastic theory, which assumes a linear stress-strain relationship.
162. The shape factor of a circular section of 0.1 m diameter is
Correct Answer: (B) 1.7
Explanation:
The shape factor is a geometric property of a cross-section that
represents its plastic moment capacity relative to its elastic moment
capacity. It is defined as the ratio of the plastic section modulus
($Z_p$) to the elastic section modulus ($Z_e$). For a circular section,
the shape factor is always approximately 1.7, regardless of its
diameter. This is a constant value for the shape of a circle.
163. What is the expression to determine factor of safety due to sliding
failure for retaining walls?
Correct Answer: (C) $\frac{\mu\Sigma W}{H}$
Explanation:
The factor of safety against sliding failure of a retaining wall is the
ratio of the total resisting force to the total driving force. The
resisting force is primarily due to friction, which is the product of
the coefficient of friction ($\mu$) and the total vertical force (sum of
weights, $\Sigma W$). The driving force is the horizontal force from the
retained earth (H). Therefore, the expression is $\frac{\mu\Sigma
W}{H}$.
164. Surcharge loads on the backfill of a retaining wall is?
Correct Answer: (B) Increase lateral earth pressure
Explanation:
A surcharge load is an additional load placed on the backfill material
behind a retaining wall, such as a building or traffic.
This additional load increases the total pressure on the soil, which in turn increases the lateral earth pressure exerted by the soil on the retaining wall.
This additional load increases the total pressure on the soil, which in turn increases the lateral earth pressure exerted by the soil on the retaining wall.
165. The active earth pressure co-efficient ($K_a$) is typically?
Correct Answer: (B) Less than the passive earth pressure co-efficient
Explanation:
In soil mechanics, active earth pressure is the minimum lateral pressure
a soil mass exerts on a retaining wall as the wall moves away from the
soil.
Passive earth pressure is the maximum pressure exerted as the wall moves towards the soil.
Because more resistance is mobilized as the wall moves into the soil, the passive earth pressure coefficient is always greater than the active earth pressure coefficient.
Passive earth pressure is the maximum pressure exerted as the wall moves towards the soil.
Because more resistance is mobilized as the wall moves into the soil, the passive earth pressure coefficient is always greater than the active earth pressure coefficient.
166. The pressure exerted by the retained earth on the retaining wall is
called as
Correct Answer: (B) Active earth pressure
Explanation:
The pressure exerted by the retained earth on a retaining wall is
generally referred to as active earth pressure.
This is the minimum pressure that the soil exerts on the wall when the wall is allowed to move slightly away from the backfill.
This is the minimum pressure that the soil exerts on the wall when the wall is allowed to move slightly away from the backfill.
167. For drawing ILD, what value of test load is assumed?
Correct Answer: (A) 1 unit
Explanation:
An Influence Line Diagram (ILD) is a graphical representation of the
variation of a function (such as shear force, bending moment, or
reaction) at a specific point in a structure due to a unit load moving
across the structure.
Therefore, when drawing an ILD, a test load of 1 unit is assumed.
Therefore, when drawing an ILD, a test load of 1 unit is assumed.
168. The ratio of crippling loads of a column having both ends fixed to
the column having both ends hinged is?
Correct Answer: (D) 4
Explanation:
The crippling load, also known as the Euler buckling load, depends on
the column's end conditions.
The formula for crippling load (P) is $P = \frac{\pi^2EI}{L_{e}^2}$, where $L_e$ is the effective length. For a column with both ends fixed, $L_e = L/2$.
For a column with both ends hinged, $L_e = L$.
The ratio of the crippling loads is $\frac{P_{fixed}}{P_{hinged}} = \frac{\frac{\pi^2EI}{(L/2)^2}}{\frac{\pi^2EI}{L^2}} = \frac{1/4}{1} = 4$. Therefore, the ratio is 4.
The formula for crippling load (P) is $P = \frac{\pi^2EI}{L_{e}^2}$, where $L_e$ is the effective length. For a column with both ends fixed, $L_e = L/2$.
For a column with both ends hinged, $L_e = L$.
The ratio of the crippling loads is $\frac{P_{fixed}}{P_{hinged}} = \frac{\frac{\pi^2EI}{(L/2)^2}}{\frac{\pi^2EI}{L^2}} = \frac{1/4}{1} = 4$. Therefore, the ratio is 4.
169. If the column is fixed at one end and hinged at other end, the
relation between equivalent length ($l_e$) and actual length (l) as per
Euler's formula is
Correct Answer: (D) $l_e=l/\sqrt{2}$
Explanation:
According to Euler's formula for column buckling, the equivalent length
($l_e$) of a column depends on its end support conditions.
For a column that is fixed at one end and hinged at the other, the equivalent length is $l_e = l/\sqrt{2}$.
For a column that is fixed at one end and hinged at the other, the equivalent length is $l_e = l/\sqrt{2}$.
170. The crippling load for a column with one end fixed and the other
end hinged is
Correct Answer: (C) $P=\frac{2\pi^{2}EI}{l^{2}}$
Explanation:
The crippling load (P) for a column is given by Euler's formula, $P =
\frac{\pi^2EI}{L_e^2}$, where $L_e$ is the effective length.
For a column with one end fixed and the other end hinged, the effective length is $L_e = l/\sqrt{2}$.
Substituting this into Euler's formula gives $P = \frac{\pi^2EI}{(l/\sqrt{2})^2} = \frac{\pi^2EI}{l^2/2} = \frac{2\pi^2EI}{l^2}$.
For a column with one end fixed and the other end hinged, the effective length is $L_e = l/\sqrt{2}$.
Substituting this into Euler's formula gives $P = \frac{\pi^2EI}{(l/\sqrt{2})^2} = \frac{\pi^2EI}{l^2/2} = \frac{2\pi^2EI}{l^2}$.
171. Consider the following statements with respect to the temperature
effect on a load carrying, three hinged arch.
Correct Answer: (B) (1) only
Explanation:
A three-hinged arch is a statically determinate structure. When a
three-hinged arch is subjected to a rise in temperature, its length
increases, causing the arch to rise.
This reduces the horizontal thrust that the arch needs to withstand. Therefore, a rise in temperature causes a decrease in horizontal thrust (1).
This reduces the horizontal thrust that the arch needs to withstand. Therefore, a rise in temperature causes a decrease in horizontal thrust (1).
172. A suspension cable, having supports at the same level, has a span
of 30 m and dip of 3 m. It carries udl of 10 kN/m throughout the span.
Find the horizontal pull in the cable.
Correct Answer: (C) 375 kN
Explanation:
The horizontal pull (H) in a suspension cable with supports at the same
level and carrying a uniformly distributed load (udl) is given by the
formula $H = \frac{wL^2}{8d}$, where $w$ is the udl, $L$ is the span,
and $d$ is the dip. Given a udl ($w$) of 10 kN/m, a span ($L$) of 30 m,
and a dip ($d$) of 3 m, the horizontal pull is calculated as $H =
\frac{10 \times 30^2}{8 \times 3} = \frac{10 \times 900}{24} =
\frac{9000}{24} = 375~kN$.
173. The equation for radial shear (F) in three hinged arch is
Correct Answer: (B) $F=V~cos~\theta-H~sin~\theta$
Explanation:
In a three-hinged arch, the internal forces at any point can be resolved
into a radial shear and a thrust.
The radial shear force ($F$) at an angle $\theta$ is given by the equation $F=V~cos~\theta-H~sin~\theta$, where $V$ is the vertical shear force and $H$ is the horizontal thrust.
The radial shear force ($F$) at an angle $\theta$ is given by the equation $F=V~cos~\theta-H~sin~\theta$, where $V$ is the vertical shear force and $H$ is the horizontal thrust.
174. Top most part of an arch is called
Correct Answer: (D) Crown
Explanation:
The crown is the topmost part of an arch. It is the highest point of the
intrados (the inner curve of the arch). The crown is a critical point in
an arch's structural design and is often where a keystone is placed.
175. The principle of contragradience in flexibility matrix method is
Correct Answer: (D) $u=T\delta$ and $\delta=T^{T}u$
Explanation:
The principle of contragradience is a fundamental concept used in the
flexibility matrix method of structural analysis.
It relates the displacements (u) and forces (P) in a structure to a set of redundant forces (X).
The principle states that the internal displacement (u) is related to the external displacement ($\delta$) by a transformation matrix (T), such that $u=T\delta$.
Similarly, the external forces are related to the internal forces.
A related principle is the virtual work principle, which states that the work done by external forces is equal to the work done by internal forces.
The given expression $u=T\delta$ and $\delta=T^{T}u$ is a mathematical representation of this relationship.
It relates the displacements (u) and forces (P) in a structure to a set of redundant forces (X).
The principle states that the internal displacement (u) is related to the external displacement ($\delta$) by a transformation matrix (T), such that $u=T\delta$.
Similarly, the external forces are related to the internal forces.
A related principle is the virtual work principle, which states that the work done by external forces is equal to the work done by internal forces.
The given expression $u=T\delta$ and $\delta=T^{T}u$ is a mathematical representation of this relationship.
176. Flexibility matrix is always
Correct Answer: (A) Symmetric
Explanation:
In structural analysis, the flexibility matrix relates forces to
displacements. A key property of this matrix is that it is always
symmetric.
This is a consequence of Maxwell's reciprocal theorem, which states that the deflection at point A due to a load at point B is equal to the deflection at point B due to the same load at point A.
This property simplifies the analysis and is a useful check for calculations.
This is a consequence of Maxwell's reciprocal theorem, which states that the deflection at point A due to a load at point B is equal to the deflection at point B due to the same load at point A.
This property simplifies the analysis and is a useful check for calculations.
177. The slope deflection equations are used in
Correct Answer: (C) Continuous beam, simple frames, portal frames
Explanation:
The slope-deflection method is a structural analysis method for
statically indeterminate beams and frames.
It is a force-based method that relates the unknown joint rotations (slopes) and deflections to the applied loads.
This method is used to analyze a variety of structures, including continuous beams, simple frames, and portal frames.
It is a force-based method that relates the unknown joint rotations (slopes) and deflections to the applied loads.
This method is used to analyze a variety of structures, including continuous beams, simple frames, and portal frames.
178. Carryover moment at end ‘B’ due to moment ‘M’ applied at the end
‘A’ for the propped cantilever beam is, when A is free end and B is
fixed end?
Correct Answer: (B) M/2
Explanation:
At fixed-end, a moment (M) applied at end A would induce a carryover
moment of M/2 at end B.
179. A fixed beam AB carrying a uniformly distributed load (w)
throughout the span (l). What is the value of bending moment at the
centre ‘C’?
Correct Answer: (D) $\frac{wl^2}{24}$
Explanation:
For a fixed beam subjected to a uniformly distributed load (w) over its
entire span (l), there are fixed-end moments at both supports and a
sagging moment at the center.
The fixed-end moments are equal to $\frac{wl^2}{12}$. The bending moment at the center of the beam is the sagging moment due to the udl minus the fixed-end moment. This is calculated as $\frac{wl^2}{8} - \frac{wl^2}{12} = \frac{3wl^2 - 2wl^2}{24} = \frac{wl^2}{24}$.
The fixed-end moments are equal to $\frac{wl^2}{12}$. The bending moment at the center of the beam is the sagging moment due to the udl minus the fixed-end moment. This is calculated as $\frac{wl^2}{8} - \frac{wl^2}{12} = \frac{3wl^2 - 2wl^2}{24} = \frac{wl^2}{24}$.
180. A continuous beam is one which has
Correct Answer: (D) More than two supports
Explanation:
A continuous beam is a beam that spans over three or more supports. The
presence of more than two supports makes the beam statically
indeterminate.
This is in contrast to a simply supported beam, which has only two supports, and a cantilever beam, which has only one fixed support.
This is in contrast to a simply supported beam, which has only two supports, and a cantilever beam, which has only one fixed support.
181. Segmented arch of 60° is provided over the door. Calculate the
value of r (radius) if the spacing of opening is 'S'.
Correct Answer: (A) r = S
Explanation:
A segmented arch is a circular arch with a smaller rise than a
semicircular arch. In a segmented arch with an angle of 60°, the chord
length (the spacing of the opening 'S') is equal to the radius (r) of
the arch.
This is because a 60° central angle in a circle forms an equilateral triangle with the two radii and the chord. Therefore, r = S.
This is because a 60° central angle in a circle forms an equilateral triangle with the two radii and the chord. Therefore, r = S.
182. In Tamil Nadu PWD schedule of rates, the conveyance of material by
road in plains is usually —————— Km.
Correct Answer: (A) 0-10 Km
Explanation:
The Tamil Nadu Public Works Department (PWD) has a schedule of rates
that specifies the costs of various construction activities and
materials.
The conveyance of materials by road in plains is usually accounted for a distance of 0-10 km, beyond which additional charges apply.
The conveyance of materials by road in plains is usually accounted for a distance of 0-10 km, beyond which additional charges apply.
183. The long and thin work of measurement is adopted by
Correct Answer: (C) Running meter
Explanation:
The measurement of long and thin items, such as pipelines, cornices, or
railings, is typically done in running meters.
This method measures the length of the item without considering its width or depth, making it suitable for these types of works.
This method measures the length of the item without considering its width or depth, making it suitable for these types of works.
184. A certain amount of capital value whose annuity of Rs. 1 at a
certain rate of interest is called
Correct Answer: (B) Year’s purchase
Explanation:
Year's purchase is a valuation term used to find the capitalized value
of a property.
It is the capital sum required to be invested at a given rate of interest to produce an annuity of one rupee forever.
This value is used to determine the total value of a property based on its net income.
It is the capital sum required to be invested at a given rate of interest to produce an annuity of one rupee forever.
This value is used to determine the total value of a property based on its net income.
185. The contractor is unwilling to fulfil the contract before
performing his work is called
Correct Answer: (C) Anticipatory breach
Explanation:
Anticipatory breach of contract occurs when one party to the contract
clearly and unequivocally indicates that they will not perform their
contractual obligations before the time for performance has arrived.
This gives the other party the right to sue for damages immediately, without waiting for the actual breach to occur.
This gives the other party the right to sue for damages immediately, without waiting for the actual breach to occur.
186. A contractor cannot approach the court of Law for his grievances,
unless, he has Exhausted the arbitration process as per —————— clause in
the contract.
Correct Answer: (B) Clause 25
Explanation:
In many standard construction contracts, including those used by the
Tamil Nadu PWD, Clause 25 outlines the process for dispute resolution,
often involving arbitration.
This clause typically requires the contractor to first exhaust the arbitration process before they can approach a court of law with their grievances.
This clause typically requires the contractor to first exhaust the arbitration process before they can approach a court of law with their grievances.
187. Tenderers does not submit (or) fail to produce ——————, the tender
will be rejected without further reference.
Correct Answer: (C) Earnest money deposit
Explanation:
An earnest money deposit (EMD) is a security deposit that a tenderer
must submit with their bid.
It serves as a guarantee of their intention to enter into a contract if their bid is accepted.
Failure to submit the EMD will usually result in the immediate rejection of the tender without further consideration.
It serves as a guarantee of their intention to enter into a contract if their bid is accepted.
Failure to submit the EMD will usually result in the immediate rejection of the tender without further consideration.
188. The subtense Bar is used to measures
Correct Answer: (B) Horizontal distance
Explanation:
A subtense bar is a surveying instrument used to measure horizontal
distances. It consists of a horizontal bar of a known length, typically
2 or 3 meters, with targets at both ends.
The horizontal distance is calculated by measuring the angle subtended by the bar at the instrument's location.
The horizontal distance is calculated by measuring the angle subtended by the bar at the instrument's location.
189. In an Internal focusing type telescope, the lens provided is
Correct Answer: (A) Concave
Explanation:
In an internal focusing telescope, which is commonly used in surveying
instruments like theodolites and levels, the focusing is achieved by
moving an internal lens.
This lens is a concave lens, which moves between the objective and the eyepiece to change the focal length and bring the image into focus.
This lens is a concave lens, which moves between the objective and the eyepiece to change the focal length and bring the image into focus.
190. In the stadia method the stadia diaphragm is provided in a
tacheometer for measuring
Correct Answer: (B) Heights and distance
Explanation:
The stadia method is a surveying technique used with a tacheometer to
determine distances and elevations.
The stadia diaphragm, which contains a pair of horizontal crosshairs, is used to read the intercept on a staff.
This stadia intercept is then used to calculate both the horizontal distance and the height difference between the instrument and the staff.
The stadia diaphragm, which contains a pair of horizontal crosshairs, is used to read the intercept on a staff.
This stadia intercept is then used to calculate both the horizontal distance and the height difference between the instrument and the staff.
191. The point that is vertically below the observer position in
celestial sphere is called
Correct Answer: (C) Nadir
Explanation:
In the celestial sphere, which is an imaginary sphere surrounding the
Earth, the nadir is the point that is vertically below the observer's
position.
It is the opposite of the zenith, which is the point vertically above the observer.
It is the opposite of the zenith, which is the point vertically above the observer.
192. —————— is an application of GPS for visually impaired
Correct Answer: (A) MOBIC
Explanation:
MOBIC, which stands for Mobile Orientation and Blind Individuals'
Communication, is a system that uses GPS technology to provide
navigation assistance for the visually impaired.
It is an application of GPS that helps blind and low-vision individuals to navigate their surroundings safely and independently.
It is an application of GPS that helps blind and low-vision individuals to navigate their surroundings safely and independently.
193. —————— is used for storing, Analysing and visualizing spatial data.
Correct Answer: (B) GIS
Explanation:
A Geographic Information System (GIS) is a powerful tool used for
managing and analyzing spatial data.
It can be used to store, manipulate, analyze, and visualize data that has a geographic component. GIS is widely used in various fields, including urban planning, environmental management, and transportation.
It can be used to store, manipulate, analyze, and visualize data that has a geographic component. GIS is widely used in various fields, including urban planning, environmental management, and transportation.
194. The horizontal distance through the excavated earth transported
from borrow pit to the embankment is known as
Correct Answer: (C) Lead
Explanation:
In earthwork calculations, the lead is the average horizontal distance
over which excavated earth is transported.
It is the distance from the center of mass of the excavated material (from the borrow pit) to the center of mass of the fill material (in the embankment).
It is the distance from the center of mass of the excavated material (from the borrow pit) to the center of mass of the fill material (in the embankment).
195. The line joining points of equal elevation is known as
Correct Answer: (B) Contour line
Explanation:
A contour line is a line drawn on a map or a plan that connects points
of equal elevation.
Contour lines are used to represent the three-dimensional topography of a landscape on a two-dimensional map.
They are a fundamental tool in surveying and mapping .
Contour lines are used to represent the three-dimensional topography of a landscape on a two-dimensional map.
They are a fundamental tool in surveying and mapping .
196. The first sight in levelling operation is
Correct Answer: (A) Back sight
Explanation:
In a leveling operation, the first staff reading taken after setting up
the level is always a back sight (B.S.).
A back sight is a reading taken on a point of known elevation, such as a benchmark, to determine the height of the instrument.
This is the starting point for all subsequent measurements.
A back sight is a reading taken on a point of known elevation, such as a benchmark, to determine the height of the instrument.
This is the starting point for all subsequent measurements.
197. The size of plane table is
Correct Answer: (B) 750 mm × 600 mm
Explanation:
The plane table is a surveying instrument used for plotting a map
directly in the field.
The most common and standard size for the drawing board, or table, of a plane table is 750 mm × 600 mm.
The most common and standard size for the drawing board, or table, of a plane table is 750 mm × 600 mm.
198. In a prismatic compass, the zero is marked on the
Correct Answer: (B) South end
Explanation:
- Prismatic compass- The graduated ring is attached to the needle and
does not rotate with the line of sight.
- The graduations have 0° at S, 90° at W, 180° at N, and 270° at E.
- Graduations are engraved inverted since the graduated ring is read through the prism.
- The readings are taken with the help of a prism provided at the eye vane.
- Sighting and reading can be done simultaneously.
- The instrument can be held in hand also while making the observations.
- The eye vane consists of a metal vane with a large silt.
199. A triangle is said to be well-conditioned when its angle should lie
between
Correct Answer: (A) 30° and 120°
Explanation:
In triangulation surveying, a triangle is considered "well-conditioned"
when its angles are not too small or too large.
This ensures that the triangles are strong and that the errors in measurement do not propagate significantly.
A well-conditioned triangle is one where all angles are between 30° and 120°.
This ensures that the triangles are strong and that the errors in measurement do not propagate significantly.
A well-conditioned triangle is one where all angles are between 30° and 120°.
200. —————— is called as parabolic rule.
Correct Answer: (D) Simpson’s rule
Explanation:
Simpson's rule is a numerical method used to calculate the area of an
irregular figure.
It approximates the boundaries of the figure with a series of parabolas, which provides a more accurate result than methods that use straight lines, such as the trapezoidal rule.
It is therefore sometimes referred to as the parabolic rule.
It approximates the boundaries of the figure with a series of parabolas, which provides a more accurate result than methods that use straight lines, such as the trapezoidal rule.
It is therefore sometimes referred to as the parabolic rule.
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