Mahesh IES Academy, Chennai (The Best Coaching Centre for Civil Engineers): Agricultural, Mechanical, Automobile and Civil Engineering (Code 562): Answer Key

Agricultural, Mechanical, Automobile and Civil Engineering (Code 562): Answer Key

1. Coefficient of permeability is obtained from the equation

(A) $K=2.3\frac{AL}{at}log\frac{h_0}{h_1}$

(B) $K=2.3\frac{aL}{At}log\frac{h_1}{h_0}$

(D) $K=2.3\frac{aL}{AL}log_{10}\frac{h_0}{h_1}$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The coefficient of permeability ($K$) in a falling-head permeability test is given by the formula $K=2.3\frac{aL}{At}log\frac{h_1}{h_0}$.

2. Non leaky artesian formula is given by

(A) $S=\frac{Q}{4\pi T}W(u)$ and $u=\frac{r^{2}s}{4Tt}$

(B) $S=\frac{Wu4\pi T}{Q}$ and $u=\frac{4Tt}{r^{2}s}$

(D) $S=\frac{QT}{Wu4\pi}$ and $u=\frac{r^{2}s}{4Tts}$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The non-leaky artesian formula, also known as the Theis equation, is given by $S=\frac{Q}{4\pi T}W(u)$ and $u=\frac{r^{2}s}{4Tt}$.

3. The ground water flow is calculated as

(A) Cross sectional area of aquifer × slope of ground water table × transmissibility of the aquifer

(B) Cross sectional area of aquifer × Slope of ground water table × permeability of the aquifer

(D) Width of aquifer × slope of ground water table × permeability of aquifer

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The correct formula for calculating groundwater flow is given by Darcy's Law, which states that the flow rate is proportional to the hydraulic conductivity (or permeability), the cross-sectional area, and the hydraulic gradient (slope of the water table). Transmissibility is the product of hydraulic conductivity and the saturated thickness of the aquifer.

4. Ground water flow Where $K=$ coefficient permeability $i=$ hydraulic gradient $A=$ Gross sectional area of the aquifer

(A) $Q=Kwb\frac{\Delta h}{L}$

(B) $Q=\frac{KwbL}{\Delta h}$

(D) $Q=\frac{wb\Delta h}{KL}$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Darcy's Law for groundwater flow is $Q = KiA$. Given the definitions, $i = \Delta h / L$ and $A = wb$. Substituting these, the formula becomes $Q=K(wb)(\frac{\Delta h}{L}) = Kwb\frac{\Delta h}{L}$.

5. The specific capacity of a well is confined aquifer under equilibrium conditions and within the working limits of drawdown

(A) can be taken as constant

(B) decreases as the drawdown increases

(D) increases or decreases depending upon the size of the well

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: For a well in a confined aquifer under equilibrium conditions, the specific capacity (Q/s) remains constant within the working limits of drawdown.

6. Which statement is wrong in the development process of well

(i) Increasing the specific capacity of the well

(ii) Preventing sand flowing

(iii) Maximum well life

(iv) Increasing the porosity of well

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The objective of well development is to remove fine materials, increase the specific capacity, prevent sand flow, and maximise the well's life. Increasing the porosity of the well is not a goal, as this is an inherent property of the surrounding soil or rock formation.

7. Which types of boring is most suitable for unconsolidated strata and for depth over 163m

(A) Hydraulic Rotary method

(B) Cable Tool method

(D) Water jet boring method

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Hydraulic Rotary method is highly effective for deep drilling in unconsolidated strata, making it suitable for depths over 163m.

8. The average annual rainfall in India is

(A) 189 cm

(B) 319 cm

(D) 118 cm

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The average annual rainfall in India is approximately 118 cm.

9. A self - recording rain - gauge

(A) Records by hourly depth of rain

(B) Records the rainfall intensity

(D) Records the cumulative depth of rainfall

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A self-recording rain gauge, such as a tipping-bucket or weighing-type gauge, provides a continuous record of rainfall, specifically the cumulative depth of rainfall over time.

10. Lithosphere is the Environment which is

(A) Below the Hydrosphere

(B) Above the Hydrosphere

(D) Above the Atmosphere

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Lithosphere (the solid part of the Earth's crust) is the environment that is below the Hydrosphere (water bodies) and the Atmosphere (gaseous layer).

11. Which of the following does not affect Runoff?

(A) Climatic factors

(B) Irrigation

(D) Physiographic factors

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Climatic, geological, and physiographic factors all directly affect runoff. Irrigation does not, as it is a controlled application of water to land and not a natural runoff process.

12. The annual rainfall at any given stations varies from

(A) Month to month

(B) Weekly basis

(D) Year to Year

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The annual rainfall at a station is typically compared over different years to observe long-term trends and variability, as it can fluctuate significantly from one year to the next.

13. Plane angular measurement of a full circle is

(A) π - radian

(B) $2\pi$ - radians

(D) $4\pi$-radians

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A full circle is defined as 360 degrees, which is equivalent to $2\pi$ radians.

14. In the Barometer, difference in elevation between the two stations may be obtained by the formula where H: the difference in elevation in m between the two stations $h_{1}=$ the barometer reading in cm @ the lower station $h_{2}=$ the barometer reading in cm @ the higher station $T_{1}=$ the temperature of the air in degrees centigrade @ the lower station $T_{2}=$ the temperature of the air in degree centigrade @ the higher station

(A) $H=18336.3(log~h_{1}+log~h_{2})[1+\frac{T_{1}+T_{2}}{500}]$

(B) $H=18336.3(log~h_{1}-log~h_{2})[1+\frac{T_{1}+T_{2}}{500}]$

(D) $H=18336.3(log~h_{1}-log~h_{2}[1+\frac{T_{1}+T_{2}}{500}])$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The formula for determining the difference in elevation between two stations using barometer readings is $H=18336.3(log~h_{1}-log~h_{2})[1+\frac{T_{1}+T_{2}}{500}]$.

15. The straight line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the level tube at the centre of the tube is called as

(A) Axis of telescope

(B) Axis of level tube

(D) Axis of vertical

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Axis of the level tube is the straight line that is tangential to the longitudinal curve of the level tube at its centre. It represents the direction of the horizontal plane when the bubble is centred.

16. In chain surveying the individual chain link diameter is

(A) 3 mm

(B) 4 mm

(D) 6 mm

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In chain surveying, the diameter of an individual chain link is 5 mm.

17. In total station, data is located in

(A) Pen drive

(B) Micro processor

(D) External hardware

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Data collected by a total station is typically stored in an internal memory or, more commonly, on a removable data card.

18. Least count of vernier transit theodolite is

(A) 30"

(B) 20"

(D) 15"

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The least count, or the smallest measurement that can be made, of a standard vernier transit theodolite is commonly 20".

19. Which method is preferable for open traversing?

(A) Method of direct angles

(B) Method of exterior angles

(D) Method of interior angles

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Method of deflection angles is the most suitable method for open traversing, especially for surveys along roads or rivers, as it simplifies the calculation of bearings.

20. In theodolite, the axis about which the telescope can be rotated in a vertical plane is

(A) Vertical axis

(B) Axis of telescope

(D) Axis of level tube

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In a theodolite, the telescope can be rotated in a vertical plane about the horizontal axis (also known as the trunnion axis).

21. Identify the correct representation of depreciation of machine (D) in hours.

(A) $D=C+\frac{J}{L\times H}$

(B) $D=C-\frac{J}{L\times H}$

(D) $D=C-\frac{J}{L+H}$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (E)

Explanation: The formula for straight-line depreciation is $(C - J) / (L \times H)$, where C is the initial cost, J is the salvage value, L is the life in years, and H is the working hours per year. None of the provided options accurately represent this formula.

22. The type of cylinder which has straight (or) inclined feed trough is for threshers.

(A) Wire loop cylinder

(B) Spike tooth cylinder

(D) Smooth drum

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Spike tooth cylinders are a type of thresher cylinder that features a straight or inclined feed trough.

23. The plant characteristics that directly affects the efficiency of a cotton stripper.

(A) Colour of leaves

(B) Boll maturity

(D) Stem thickness

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The efficiency of a cotton stripper is directly affected by the boll maturity of the cotton plant.

24. The kind of sugarcane planting pattern helps the machines to harvest more efficiently is

(A) Zigzag rows

(B) Cluster planting rows

(D) Circular bed

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Bedded rows are a type of sugarcane planting pattern that allows for more efficient machine harvesting.

25. The part of celery plant is harvested.

(A) Roots

(B) Leaves only

(D) Flowers

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The edible parts of the celery plant that are typically harvested are the stalks.

26. The type of pump used for high pressure applications in power sprayer is

(A) Diaphragm pump

(B) Screw pump

(D) Piston pump

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Piston pumps are a type of positive displacement pump commonly used in power sprayers for high-pressure applications.

27. Increasing sprayer speed without adjusting nozzle output will

(A) Increase application rate

(B) Decrease application rate

(D) Clean the nozzles

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: If the sprayer speed is increased without changing the nozzle output, the amount of liquid applied per unit of area will be reduced, thus causing a decrease in the application rate.

28. The function of nozzle in a sprayer is

(A) Measure pressure

(B) Store chemicals

(D) Increase tank capacity

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The primary function of a nozzle in a sprayer is to atomize the liquid, which means to break the liquid into tiny droplets.

29. Rocker sprayers are usually operated by

(A) Hand lever

(B) Battery

(D) Hydraulic fluid

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Rocker sprayers are a type of manual sprayer that are typically operated by a hand lever.

30. The working principle of an anger type fertilizer metering mechanism is

(A) It uses air to move the fertilizer

(B) It drops fertilizer by shaking the hopper

(D) It uses water to move the fertilizer

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: An auger-type fertilizer metering mechanism works on the principle of using a rotating screw to push the fertilizer from the hopper.

31. The main function of cono weeder is

(A) Harvesting Paddy

(B) Spraying Pesticides

(D) Sowing seeds

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A cono weeder is a farm tool primarily used in rice paddies to uproot and bury weeds.

32. The common width of sweeps for weed control ranges from

(A) 6-8 cm

(B) 8-10 cm

(D) 15-20 cm

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: For weed control, the common width of sweeps on cultivators typically ranges from 10-15 cm.

33. The VMD stand for in spray technology is

(A) Variable Measurement Device

(B) Velocity Mean Distribution

(D) Volume Mean Diameter

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: In spray technology, VMD stands for Volume Mean Diameter. It is a measurement of droplet size.

34. The following subsoiler types which is best for minimizing draft force is

(A) Rigid

(B) Straight shank

(D) Spring loaded

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A parabolic subsoiler is designed with a curved shape that helps to lift and shatter the soil, which effectively minimizes the draft force required.

35. The disc plough is most suitable than the mould board plough in

(A) Light sandy soil

(B) Wet and sticky soil

(D) Dry arid soils

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A disc plough is more suitable for working in wet and sticky soil because its smooth, rotating discs can cut through the soil and resist clogging, unlike a mouldboard plough.

36. The type of mould board plough suitable for grassy land is

(A) General purpose

(B) Slat type

(D) Stubble type

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A sod type mouldboard plough is specifically designed with a long, gentle mouldboard to turn over grassy land (sod) without breaking it up excessively.

37. The earth moving equipment used for pushing large quantities of soils is

(A) Excavator

(B) Bull dozer

(D) Scraper

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A bulldozer is a powerful earth-moving machine that uses a large metal blade to push and move large quantities of soil, sand, or other materials.

38. The primary purpose of cultivator is to

(A) Prepare seedbed by deep soil inversion

(B) Control weeds and loosen soil after creep emergence

(D) Irrigate the fields

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The primary function of a cultivator is to till the soil after the crop has emerged, mainly to control weeds and loosen the soil to promote aeration.

39. Which of the following implement is most commonly associated with primary tillage?

(A) Rotavator

(B) Seed drill

(D) Harrow

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Primary tillage involves deep ploughing to break up and loosen the soil. The moldboard plough is a classic implement used for this purpose.

40. The main purpose of puddler in paddy field is to

(A) Drain excess water

(B) Create a dry seed bed

(D) Control insects in the soil

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A puddler is used in paddy fields to churn the wet soil, creating a hard pan that helps to reduce water percolation and prepare a soft bed for transplanting rice seedlings.

41. In bar chart, which colour is used to show the actual progress.

(A) Green

(B) Yellow

(D) Blue

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: In a standard bar chart (Gantt chart) used for project scheduling, the colour green is commonly used to indicate the actual progress of a task or activity.

42. The rate of use of a particular raw material from stores is 20 units per year. The cost of placing and receiving an order is Rs. 40. The cost of each unit is Rs. 100. The cost of carrying inventory in percent per year is 0.16 and it depends upon the average stock. Determine the economic order quantity. If the lead time is 3 month, calculate the reorder point.

(A) 10 and 5 units

(B) 5 and 10 units

(D) 5 and 15 units

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation:
Economic Order Quantity (EOQ):
$EOQ = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times (\text{Annual Demand}) \times (\text{Ordering Cost})}{(\text{Holding Cost per Unit})}}$
Annual Demand ($D$) = 20 units/year
Ordering Cost ($C_o$) = Rs. 40
Holding Cost ($C_h$) = (0.16) * (Rs. 100) = Rs. 16 per unit per year
$EOQ = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 20 \times 40}{16}} = \sqrt{\frac{1600}{16}} = \sqrt{100} = 10$ units.

Reorder Point (ROP):
$ROP = (\text{Daily Demand}) \times (\text{Lead Time in Days})$
Daily Demand = 20 units / 12 months = 1.67 units/month
Lead Time = 3 months
$ROP = 1.67 \text{ units/month} \times 3 \text{ months} \approx 5$ units.

43. _____ are used to represent activity in a network diagram.

(A) Circles

(B) Squares

(D) Rectangles

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In a standard AOA (Activity-on-Arrow) network diagram (CPM/PERT), arrows are used to represent the activities. Circles represent events or nodes.

44. Critical ratio (CR) in dynamic sequencing rules is

(A) CR = (need date - today's date)/days required to complete the job

(B) CR = (today's date - need date)/days required to complete the job

(D) CR = (No. of working hr/day)/days required to complete the job

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The critical ratio (CR) is a dynamic sequencing rule used in production scheduling. The formula is CR = (Need date - Today's date) / (Days required to complete the job) .

45. Consider the following operations involved in forging a hexagonal bolt from a round bar stock, whose diameter is equal to the bolt diameters. Find the correct sequence of the operations

(A) Up setting - Swaging - Cambering - Flattening

(B) Up setting - Flattening - Swaging - Cambering

(D) Flattening Up setting - Swaging - Cambering

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The correct sequence of operations for forging a hexagonal bolt from a round bar stock is Up setting, followed by Flattening of the head to create a hexagonal shape, then Swaging for the shank, and finally Cambering to smooth the transition.

46. Match the following:

(a) Neutral flame - 1. Application are similar to electro gas welding

(b) Oxidizing flame - 2. Stick welding

(d) Shielded metal are welding - 4. Inner cone of $3040-3300^{\circ}C$

(e) Electro slag welding - 5. Blue envelope

(A) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-5, (d)-2, (e)-1

(B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-5, (d)-2, (e)-1

(D) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-5, (d)-1, (e)-2

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation:
- (a) Neutral flame: has a small and narrow inner cone (3).
- (b) Oxidizing flame: has a high temperature inner cone of $3040-3300^{\circ}C$ (4).
- (c) Carburizing flame: has a characteristic blue envelope (5).
- (d) Shielded metal arc welding: is also known as stick welding (2).
- (e) Electro slag welding: its applications are similar to electro gas welding (1).

47. Gun metal is an alloy of

(A) Aluminium and Copper

(B) Copper and Tin

(D) Aluminium, Cobalt and Zinc

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Gun metal is a type of bronze, which is an alloy of Copper, Tin and Zinc.

48. A Crude Oil of kinematic viscosity 0.4 stoke is flowing through a pipe of diameter 300 mm at the rate at 300 litre per second. Find the velocity of flow.

(A) $4.14~m/s$

(B) $4.24~m/s$

(D) $4.44~m/s$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation:
Flow rate ($Q$) = 300 L/s = 0.3 $m^3/s$
Pipe diameter ($D$) = 300 mm = 0.3 m
Cross-sectional area ($A$) = $\pi D^2 / 4 = \pi (0.3)^2 / 4 = 0.070685$ $m^2$
Velocity ($V$) = $Q/A = 0.3 / 0.070685 \approx \textbf{4.24}$ m/s.

49. The loss of head at the entrance of a pipe is

(A) $0.5~V^{2}/2g$

(B) $V^{2}/2g$

(D) $KV^{2}/2g$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The loss of head at the entrance of a pipe is a minor loss that is given by the formula $h_L = K_L \frac{V^2}{2g}$. For a sharp entrance, the coefficient of loss ($K_L$) is approximately 0.5. Thus, the loss of head is $0.5~V^{2}/2g$.

50. Cavitation in centrifugal pump due to

(A) Pressure drops below the Vapour Pressure of the liquid

(B) Pressure rises above the Vapour Pressure of the liquid

(D) Rotation of the pump impeller in the opposite direction

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Cavitation in a centrifugal pump occurs when the pressure drops below the vapour pressure of the liquid at the suction side, causing vapour bubbles to form and then collapse, which can cause damage to the pump.

51. Rankine's theory is used for

(A) Brittle materials

(B) Ductile materials

(D) Plastic materials

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Rankine's theory (Maximum Normal Stress Theory) is a failure theory that is primarily used for brittle materials.

52. One torr pressure is equivalent to

(A) 1 mm of mercury

(B) 1 atmosphere

(D) 10 m of water

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: By definition, one torr of pressure is equivalent to the pressure exerted by 1 mm of mercury at standard conditions.

53. The work done by impeller of a centrifugal pump on water per second per unit weight of water is given by

(A) $\frac{1}{g}\times V_{w_{1}}U_{1}$

(B) $\frac{1}{g}\times V_{w_{2}}U_{2}$

(D) $\frac{1}{g}\times V_{w_{1}}{U_{1}}^{2}$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The work done by the impeller of a centrifugal pump on water per unit weight is given by Euler's equation, which is $\frac{1}{g}\times(V_{w_{2}}U_{2}-V_{w_{1}}U_{1})$.

54. The continuity equation $\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}+\frac{\partial w}{\partial z}=0$ is valid for

(A) Ideal fluid flow only

(B) Incompressible fluids, whether the flow is steady or unsteady

(D) Incompressible fluids and steady flow only

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The continuity equation in its simplified form ($\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}+\frac{\partial w}{\partial z}=0$) is valid for all incompressible fluids, regardless of whether the flow is steady or unsteady.

55. Find the centroid of an unequal angle section $100~mm\times80~mm\times20 mm.$

Image of an unequal angle section with dimensions

(A) $\overline{x}=25~mm$ and $\overline{y}=35~mm$

(B) $\overline{x}=35~mm$ and $\overline{y}=25~mm$

(D) $\overline{x}=20~mm$ and $\overline{y}=30mm$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Rectangle 1 (Vertical Flange):
Dimensions: $100 \text{ mm} \times 20 \text{ mm}$
$A_1 = 100 \times 20 = 2000 \text{ mm}^2$
$x_1 = 20/2 = 10 \text{ mm}$
$y_1 = 100/2 = 50 \text{ mm}$

Rectangle 2 (Horizontal Flange):
Dimensions: The total width is $80 \text{ mm}$. The vertical flange is $20 \text{ mm}$ thick. Therefore, the horizontal flange's length is $(80 - 20) = 60 \text{ mm}$. The thickness is $20 \text{ mm}$.
$A_2 = 60 \text{ mm} \times 20 \text{ mm} = 1200 \text{ mm}^2$
$x_2$: The centroid of this rectangle is at $60/2 = 30 \text{ mm}$ from its left edge. However, this is not the origin. The left edge of this rectangle is at $x=20 \text{ mm}$. So, $x_2 = 20 \text{ mm} + 30 \text{ mm} = 50 \text{ mm}$.
$y_2$: The centroid is at $20/2 = 10 \text{ mm}$ from the bottom edge. So, $y_2 = 10 \text{ mm}$.

Let's calculate using these values.
Calculation for $\bar{x}$:
$\bar{x} = \frac{A_1x_1 + A_2x_2}{A_1 + A_2}$
$\bar{x} = \frac{(2000)(10) + (1200)(50)}{2000 + 1200}$
$\bar{x} = \frac{20000 + 60000}{3200} = \frac{80000}{3200} = 25 \text{ mm}$
Calculation for $\bar{y}$:
$\bar{y} = \frac{A_1y_1 + A_2y_2}{A_1 + A_2}$
$\bar{y} = \frac{(2000)(50) + (1200)(10)}{2000 + 1200}$
$\bar{y} = \frac{100000 + 12000}{3200} = \frac{112000}{3200} = 35 \text{ mm}$
Thus, the centroid is at ($\bar{x}$, $\bar{y}$) = ($25 \text{ mm}$, $35 \text{ mm}$). This matches option (A).

56. A rigid body is treated as a particle when it is applied with

(A) Concurrent forces

(B) Coplanar forces

(D) Non-coplanar forces

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A rigid body is treated as a particle in statics when the system of forces applied to it are concurrent forces, as this simplifies the analysis by focusing only on translation without considering rotation.

57. A block of mass 30 kg is on an inclined plane of $30^{\circ}$ and is supported by a force F acting parallel to the plane. The magnitude is

(A) 14.715 N

(B) 147.15 N

(D) 3000 N

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The force F required to support the block parallel to the inclined plane is equal to the component of the block's weight along the plane, which is $W \sin\theta$.
Weight ($W$) = $mg = 30 \times 9.81 = 294.3$ N
$F = W \sin(30^\circ) = 294.3 \times 0.5 = \textbf{147.15}$ N.

58. Two surfaces A and B are in contact. Surface B is being pulled over surface A, which is fixed, the direction of frictional free on A is

(A) In the direction of the motion of B

(B) Opposite to the direction of the motion of B

(D) Either in the direction of the motion of B (or) opposite to it.

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: When surface B is pulled over surface A, the friction force on A will act in the same direction as the motion of B, as it is the force that B exerts on A. Conversely, the friction force on B will be opposite to its direction of motion.

59. The planes, which have no shear stress are known as

(A) Principal planes

(B) Parallel planes

(D) Normal stress

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Principal planes are the planes on which the shear stress is zero, and only normal stresses (principal stresses) exist.

60. A square section with side 'x' of a beam is subjected to a shear force 'S' the magnitude of shear stress is developed

(A) at the centre of the web

(B) at the top of edge of the top flange

(D) at the middle third of web

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: In a solid section, the shear stress distribution is parabolic, with the maximum shear stress occurring at the neutral axis, which for a symmetrical section is at the centre of the web.

61. Which among the following is one of the widely practised method between production and marketing of perishable agricultural commodities towards extended shelf life?

(A) Cold storage

(B) Sterilization

(D) Canning

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Cold storage is one of the most widely used methods for extending the shelf life of perishable agricultural commodities between production and marketing.

62. Which one of the following is not the component of a refrigeration system?

(A) Evaporator

(B) Condenser

(D) Cartilage

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A standard refrigeration system consists of a compressor, condenser, expansion valve, and evaporator. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue and is not a component of a refrigeration system.

63. Which of the following statements are true about evaporators?
Statement I: Open pan evaporators have poor evaporation capacity.
Statement II: Pan evaporators have low surface/volume ratio.

(A) I and II

(B) I

(D) None of the statements are true

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Neither statement is true. Open pan evaporators actually have a relatively high evaporation capacity due to direct exposure. Pan evaporators also have a high surface-to-volume ratio to maximise evaporation.

64. The average level of sugar in flavoured milk is

(A) 4%

(B) 10%

(D) 7%

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The average sugar level in flavoured milk is approximately 7%.

65. Vacuum packaging used to prevent in the food products.
(i) lipid oxidation
(ii) loss of vitamins
(iii) loss of pigments
(iv) oxidative browning

(A) (i), (iii) only

(B) (i), (iv) only

(D) (ii), (iii) only

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Vacuum packaging works by removing oxygen from the package. This effectively prevents reactions that require oxygen, such as lipid oxidation and oxidative browning.

66. The major carbohydrate present in milk is

(A) Lactose

(B) Glucose

(D) Fructose

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Lactose, also known as milk sugar, is the major carbohydrate found in milk.

67. Different types of polyethylene used in food packaging industry is/are

(A) LDPE

(B) HDPE

(D) (A), (B) and (C)

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: All three types of polyethylene—Low-Density Polyethylene (LDPE), High-Density Polyethylene (HDPE), and Linear Low-Density Polyethylene (LLDPE)—are widely used in the food packaging industry due to their different properties.

68. Law used to measure the gas or vapour permeability for one-dimensional diffusion is

(A) Fick's law

(B) Henry's law

(D) Arrhenius theory

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Fick's law of diffusion is used to measure the rate of gas or vapour permeability for one-dimensional diffusion.

69. The irradiation dose level applied in radappertisation is

(A) 10-25

(B) 2-5

(D) 0.1-6.0

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Radappertisation is a food preservation method using ionising radiation, with a dose level typically in the range of 10-25 kGy to sterilize the food.

70. The drawback of using X-rays in food preservation is

(A) their high efficiency

(B) high cost of production

(D) greater penetration power

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A major drawback of using X-rays for food preservation is the high cost of production of the X-ray source and the associated equipment.

71. The critical temperature of carbon dioxide gas is

(A) $35.6^{\circ}C$

(B) $40.2^{\circ}C$

(D) $31.1^{\circ}C$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The critical temperature of carbon dioxide is $31.1^{\circ}C$. This is the temperature above which gaseous carbon dioxide cannot be liquefied by pressure alone.

72. Match the types of Dryer used for various food and foods by-products.

(a) Fruits and vegetables - 1. Spray dryer

(b) Instant coffee and tea - 2. Compartment and tunnel tray dryer

(d) Predigested infant foods - 4. Conveyor band

(A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3

(B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2

(D) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation:
- (a) Fruits and vegetables: are commonly dried using Compartment and tunnel tray dryers (2).
- (b) Instant coffee and tea: are typically produced using a Spray dryer (1).
- (c) Breakfast cereals: often dried with a Conveyor band (4) dryer.
- (d) Predigested infant foods: are commonly processed using a Film drum dryer (3).

73. Dryer used in micro encapsulation process is

(A) Drum dryer

(B) Belt dryer

(D) Tray dryer

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The spray dryer is a widely used technology for the micro encapsulation process due to its ability to handle liquid materials and produce fine powders.

74. The time and temperature used in ultra high temperature technology is

(A) $120^{\circ}C$, 5 seconds

(B) $135^{\circ}C$, 3 seconds

(D) $140^{\circ}C$, 10 seconds

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Ultra-high temperature (UHT) technology, such as for milk, typically involves heating the product to around $135^{\circ}C$ for 3 seconds to sterilize it.

75. A typical L/D ratio for extruder is

(A) 10

(B) 15

(D) 25

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A typical length-to-diameter ratio (L/D) for a food extruder is approximately 20.

76. Smaller milk powder particles carried away by the air stream during spray drying can be collected using

(A) Centrifugal separators

(B) Magnetic separators

(D) Particle separators

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Cyclone separators are commonly used in spray drying processes to collect smaller particles, such as milk powder, that are carried away by the air stream.

77. Facts about radiation heat transfer

(i) Electromagnetic radiation wavelength is $10^{-7}$ to $10^{-4}$ m

(ii) Intensity of radiation depends on temperature of the source

(iii) Does not require any material medium

(iv) Transport energy in the form of waves

(A) (i), (iv) only true

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only true

(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are true

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation:
(ii) The intensity of thermal radiation is dependent on the temperature of the source, as described by the Stefan-Boltzmann law.
(iii) Radiation heat transfer can occur through a vacuum and therefore does not require a material medium.
(iv) Energy is transported in the form of electromagnetic waves.
Statement (i) is incorrect as the wavelength of thermal radiation is typically longer than the specified range.

78. Which statement is true about thermal conductivity?

(I) It varies with temperature

(II) It is pressure dependent in case of gases

(III) SI unit is w/mk

(A) I, II and III

(B) Only I, II

(D) Only I and III

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: All three statements are true.
(I) Thermal conductivity is a temperature-dependent property.
(II) For gases, thermal conductivity is a function of pressure.
(III) The SI unit for thermal conductivity is Watts per metre-Kelvin (W/mK).

79. Which of the statement is true about heat exchangers?

(I) Fouling reduces efficiency of heat exchange

(II) Burnt pulp, denatured protein cause fouling

(III) Fouling cannot be eliminated

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(D) I, II and III

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Fouling, the buildup of unwanted material on heat transfer surfaces, reduces the efficiency of heat exchange. Common causes in the food industry include burnt pulp and denatured proteins. While cleaning can mitigate it, fouling cannot be completely eliminated in a heat exchanger over its lifetime.

80. Method used for partial compensation of aroma loss caused by evaporation process is

(A) Aroma recovery

(B) Cut back method

(D) (A), (B) only

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Both aroma recovery and the cut back method are techniques used to partially compensate for the loss of aroma during evaporation and concentration processes in food processing.

81. In India green house technology was started in

(A) 1980's

(B) 1970's

(D) 1990's

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Green house technology for research and development activities was started in India in the 1970's.

82. _____ operation is done to remove the minor humps and depression for the efficient surface drainage

(A) Land grading

(B) Land smoothing

(D) Land covering

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Land smoothing is the operation of removing minor humps and depressions to improve the efficiency of surface drainage.

83. In _____ system of surface drainage the laterals are constructed parallel to each other and they are connected to main drain when the land is perfectly level.

(A) Regular

(B) Random

(D) Bedding

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The regular system of surface drainage is used when the land is perfectly level, with laterals constructed parallel to each other and connected to a main drain.

84. _____ are air vents located at gradient change points to remove entrapped air.

(A) Junction box

(B) Relief walls

(D) Breathers

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Breathers are air vents or standpipes located at points of gradient change in a pipeline to allow for the removal of entrapped air.

85. _____ refers to the drainage effect of the high rate of withdrawal of ground water by certain plants.

(A) Ground water drainage

(B) Land drainage

(D) Bio drainage

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Bio drainage is the term for the process where certain plants with high water consumption rates are used to lower the groundwater table.

86. The highly deteriorated _____ have very low infiltration rate.

(A) Saline soils

(B) Alkaline soils

(D) Dry soils

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Highly deteriorated alkaline soils have a very low infiltration rate due to the deflocculation of soil particles caused by high sodium content.

87. Boron concentration more than _____ may be injurious to crops it used on heavy soils.

(A) 0.002 ppm

(B) 0.02 ppm

(D) 2 ppm

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Boron is an essential micronutrient, but a concentration of more than 2 ppm in irrigation water can become toxic and injurious to crops, especially in heavy soils.

88. It is safer to use irrigation water of poorer quality in _____ than in soils with higher clay content

(A) Loamy soil

(B) Clayey Loam soil

(D) Silty clay

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: It is safer to use poorer quality irrigation water in sandy soil because its high permeability allows salts to be leached out more easily, preventing a buildup that could harm crops.

89. _____ can be used in leaching of soil when the landslope is more.

(A) Level border

(B) Rectangular checks

(D) Sprinkler irrigation

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Contour checks are a suitable method for leaching soil on land with a significant slope, as they help to retain water on the contour.

90. _____ are usually more salt tolerant than legumes

(A) Pulses

(B) Grains

(D) Maize

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Cereals (such as wheat, rice, and barley) are generally more salt tolerant than legumes.

91. In _____ irrigation only root zone is saturated during irrigation.

(A) Sprinkler

(B) Check flooding

(D) Drip

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Drip irrigation is a highly efficient method where water is applied directly to the plant's root zone, saturating only that area and minimizing water loss to evaporation and runoff.

92. _____ is defined as the highest velocity at which water may be carried in channel.

(A) Maximum velocity

(B) Minimum velocity

(D) Permissible velocity

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Permissible velocity is the highest velocity at which water can be carried in a channel without causing scouring or erosion of the channel bed and sides.

93. Spoil bank is also known as

(A) Counter Berm

(B) Bank width

(D) Dowel

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A spoil bank is an embankment or mound of excavated material removed from a canal or drainage trench. It is also known as a waste bank.

94. A bridge and a culvert is distinguished from each other on the basis of

(A) Water way

(B) Span length

(D) Decking slab

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The primary distinction between a bridge and a culvert is based on span length. While the exact definition may vary, a structure with a span of less than a certain length (often 6 meters) is typically classified as a culvert, while a span greater than that is a bridge.

95. Molitor stevenson formula for design of freeboard in earthen dam for a fetch our 32 Km is

(A) $FB=1.5(0.032\sqrt{Fr})$

(B) $FB=0.5(0.0032\sqrt{Fr})$

(D) $FB=1.5(0.32\sqrt{Fr})$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (E)

Explanation: The Molitor formula for freeboard is $F_b = 0.77 \sqrt{F} + 1.25 - F^{1/4}$, where $F$ is the fetch in km. This formula is different from the options provided. The Stevenson formula for freeboard is $F_b = 0.77 \sqrt{F} + 2.5 - F^{1/4}$. The provided options are incorrect representations of these formulas.

96. _____ are structures for sheltering and restricting dairy animals.

(A) Milking parlours

(B) Cow stall

(D) Water bowls

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A cow stall is a structure designed to shelter and restrict a single dairy animal, providing a dedicated space for feeding and milking.

97. Steel reinforcement is provided in concrete to with stand

(A) Compressive loads

(B) Tensile loads

(D) Cracking load

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Concrete is strong in compression but weak in tension. Steel reinforcement is added to concrete to enhance its ability to withstand tensile loads.

98. _____ is one of the important consideration in selecting a site for poultry house.

(A) Dampness

(B) Dust

(D) Smoke

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Dampness is a critical consideration when selecting a site for a poultry house, as a damp environment can lead to a range of health issues for the birds.

99. In reciprocating pump _____ is equal to the difference of theoretical discharge and actual discharge.

(A) Percentage slip

(B) Positive slip

(D) Slip

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as the difference between its theoretical discharge and its actual discharge.

100. Which types houses use to built in warm regions for birds?

(A) Wire floored houses

(B) Deep litter houses

(D) All the above

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Wire-floored houses are suitable for warm regions because they provide good ventilation and air circulation underneath the birds, helping to keep them cool.

101. Soil is a

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Soil is generally considered a three-phase system, consisting of solids, liquids (water), and gases (air).

102. A clay soil has a high percentage of fine particles and is referred to as

(A) Coarse (or) light soil

(B) Medium textured soil

(D) Good soil

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A clay soil has a high percentage of fine particles and is referred to as a fine (or) heavy soil.

103. The force of mutual attraction of water molecules in the air water interface is known as

(A) Surface tension

(B) Capillary force

(D) Adhesive force

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Surface tension is the force of mutual attraction of water molecules at the air-water interface.

104. _____ is the time in days between first watering of a crop at the time of sowing to its last watering before harvesting.

(A) Crop period

(B) Base period

(D) Delta

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The base period is defined as the time in days between the first watering of a crop at the time of sowing and its last watering before harvesting.

105. The relationship between Duty, Delta and Base period is given by

(A) $\Delta=8.64\frac{B}{D}cm$

(B) $\Delta=864\frac{B}{D}cm$

(D) $\Delta=8.64\frac{D}{B}cm$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The relationship between Delta ($\Delta$ in cm), Duty (D in ha/cumec), and Base period (B in days) is given by the formula $\Delta=864\frac{B}{D}$ cm.

106. _____ is the common method for irrigating row crops.

(A) Contour farming

(B) Basin flooding

(D) Furrow method

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The furrow method is a common irrigation technique used for row crops, where water is conveyed in ditches between the rows.

107. A _____ weir is constructed at the offtake canal across the river to raise the water level for feeding the canal.

(A) Division

(B) Storage

(D) Waste

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A pickup weir is constructed across a river to raise the water level at the offtake point, allowing water to be diverted into a canal.

108. In the surface irrigation, the lowest irrigation efficiency is

(A) 40%

(B) 45%

(D) 55%

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: While irrigation efficiencies vary, surface irrigation methods like flood irrigation are generally the least efficient, with typical efficiencies as low as 40%.

109. _____ is a low water intensity crop.

(A) Sugar cane

(B) Beans

(D) Wheat

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Wheat is generally considered a low water-intensity crop compared to crops like sugarcane and cotton.

110. The area irrigated by a unit discharge of water flowing continuously for the duration of the base period of crop is known as

(A) Delta

(B) Duty

(D) Base period

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Duty is the term for the area of land that can be irrigated by a unit discharge of water (1 cumec) flowing continuously for the entire base period of the crop.

111. The two basic components of remote sensing are data acquisition and

(A) data transmission

(B) data storing

(D) data scattering

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The two fundamental components of any remote sensing system are the acquisition of data from a sensor and the subsequent processing of that data to extract useful information.

112. _____ is a useful tool to predict drought.

(A) Geo informatics

(B) Geo information system

(D) Remote sensing

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Remote sensing is a valuable tool for predicting droughts, as it can monitor changes in vegetation health, soil moisture levels, and water body sizes over large areas.

113. GIS coupled with _____ have numerous applications in soil and water management.

(A) Data sensing

(B) Data processing

(D) Remote sensing

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Remote sensing data, when integrated with a Geographic Information System (GIS), provides a powerful platform for numerous applications in soil and water management.

114. _____ microwave sensors also have the capability of gathering data during the day and the night.

(A) Active

(B) Passive

(D) Radar

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Active microwave sensors, such as radar, emit their own energy pulses and therefore have the capability of gathering data during both the day and night.

115. _____ microwave sensors are called radiometers.

(A) Active

(B) Passive

(D) Non imaging

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Passive microwave sensors detect naturally emitted radiation. They are also known as radiometers.

116. It has been estimated in India that about _____ hectares of land are degraded by Gully and ravine erosion

(A) 2 Million

(B) 3 Million

(D) 5 Million

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: In India, it has been estimated that approximately 5 Million hectares of land are degraded due to gully and ravine erosion.

117. _____ and large gullies may not be economically viable for reclamation.

(A) Small

(B) Medium

(D) Deep

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Deep and large gullies are often not economically viable to reclaim due to the significant effort and cost required.

118. Farm ponds constructed on _____ can results in acidic water.

(A) Alkaline Soils

(B) Acid Sulphide Soils

(D) Acid Nitric Soils

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Farm ponds constructed on acid sulphate soils can result in acidic water due to the oxidation of sulphides in the soil when exposed to air.

119. _____ helps in water harvesting, moisture control and ground water recharge.

(A) Seepage

(B) Gravity weirs

(D) Nalla bunding

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Nalla bunding is a soil and water conservation measure that involves building small check dams or bunds across gullies (nallas). This helps in water harvesting, controlling moisture, and recharging groundwater.

120. Seepage losses in well graded coarse grained soil may be reduced by addition of

(A) Kaolite

(B) Dolomite

(D) Bentonite

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Bentonite, a type of clay, is commonly added to well-graded coarse-grained soil to reduce seepage losses due to its high swelling capacity and low permeability when wet.

121. _____ method is commonly used for slope analysis land capability survey of watershed.

(A) Intervention method

(B) Grid method

(D) Circle interception method

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Grid method is commonly employed for slope analysis and land capability surveys in watershed management due to its systematic approach.

122. _____ is the summit (or) boundary line separating watershed (or) basins.

(A) Watershed degradation

(B) Watershed community

(D) Watershed divide

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The watershed divide is the boundary line that separates different watersheds or basins.

123. The day today activities of a watershed development project are carried out by the

(A) Watershed Association

(B) Watershed Development Team

(D) Users Group

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The day-to-day activities of a watershed development project are typically managed and executed by the Watershed Development Team.

124. _____ have important roles in planning the watershed development projects at village level.

(A) Block Officer

(B) District Panchayat

(D) Village Panchayats

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Village Panchayats play a crucial role in the planning and implementation of watershed development projects at the local village level.

125. The _____ contain all the topographical features along with the relevant benchmark of watershed.

(A) Social

(B) Google map

(D) Base map

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Base map of a watershed contains all the essential topographical features and benchmarks needed for planning and development.

126. Which one of the following tea is not fermented?

(A) Oolong Tea

(B) Black Tea

(D) Yellow Tea

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Green tea is a non-fermented tea, whereas Oolong and Black teas are partially or fully fermented.

127. The electronic moisture meter developed by Central Plantation Crop Research Institute, Kasaragod can read moisture content of Copra from _____ to _____ %.

(A) 5 to 40

(B) 0 to 100

(D) 5 to 75

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The electronic moisture meter developed by CPCRI, Kasaragod is designed to measure the moisture content of copra in the range of 5% to 40%.

128. Identify the intrinsic factor that determines the safe storage of grains

(A) Moisture content

(B) Insects

(D) Relative humidity

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Moisture content is the most critical intrinsic factor that determines the safe storage of grains. Low moisture content prevents the growth of fungi and insects.

129. The system most applicable for fumigation in stored gains is

(A) Condensation system

(B) Aeration system

(D) Solar system

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The aeration system is the most applicable method for fumigation in stored grains, as it allows for the effective circulation of the fumigant gas throughout the grain mass.

130. High dead weight, thickness of bin walls and possible air bubbles on the interior walls are the same of the disadvantages in

(A) Metal bins

(B) Wooden bins

(D) Synthetic bins

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Concrete bins are known for their high dead weight, thick walls, and the potential for air bubbles on the interior walls, which are considered disadvantages.

131. A screw conveyor of 0.1 m diameter revolves at 600 rpm. Estimate the peripheral speed (tangential speed) of the screw

(A) 31.4 m/s

(B) 3.14 m/s

(D) 3.942 m/s

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation:
The peripheral speed ($V$) is calculated using the formula $V = \omega \times r$, where $\omega$ is the angular velocity in rad/s and $r$ is the radius.
Diameter = 0.1 m, so Radius ($r$) = 0.05 m.
Angular velocity ($\omega$) = (600 rpm) * ($2\pi$ rad/revolution) / (60 s/min) = 62.83 rad/s.
$V = 62.83 \times 0.05 = \textbf{3.14}$ m/s.

132. Dredging effect is quite common in _____ material handling equipment

(A) Belt conveyor

(B) Screw conveyor

(D) Pneumatic conveyor

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The dredging effect, or the dragging of material along the bottom of the trough, is a common phenomenon in screw conveyors.

133. Trough idlers are associated with this material handling equipment

(A) Bucket elevator

(B) Screw conveyor

(D) Pneumatic conveyor

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Trough idlers are rollers used to support the belt on the carrying side of a belt conveyor, forming a troughed shape to contain the material.

134. Which of the following properties are related with raw rice production?

(i) More gruel loss

(ii) Quick cooking

(iii) Less oil content in bran

(iv) More prone to infect infestation

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation:
- Raw rice has a higher gruel loss (i) and is more susceptible to insect infestation (iv).
- The bran of raw rice has a lower oil content (iii) compared to parboiled rice.
- Raw rice is not quick-cooking (ii), so this statement is incorrect.

135. Rubber roll Sheller is working on the principle of

(A) Impact force

(B) Shear force

(D) Impact and compaction force

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A rubber roll sheller works on the principle of shear force. The two rolls rotate at different speeds, creating a shearing action that removes the husk from the rice grain.

136. The two processes used to remove the bran layer from the brown rice are

(A) Abrasion and impact

(B) Abrasion and friction

(D) Compaction and abrasion

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The bran layer is removed from brown rice through a combination of abrasion (rubbing against a rough surface) and impact (forceful contact with another grain or surface).

137. The separation of cleaned product into various quality fractions that may be defined on the basis of size, shape, density texture and colour is called as

(A) Sorting

(B) Grading

(D) Scalping

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Grading is the process of separating a product into different quality fractions based on physical properties such as size, shape, density, and colour.

138. The velvet roll separator or roll mill separates grains on the basis of

(A) Shape and size

(B) Shape and surface texture

(D) Shape and colour

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A velvet roll separator or roll mill is a piece of equipment that separates grains based on their shape and surface texture.

139. The equilibrium moisture content of grains is dependent on _____ of the storage ambience

(A) Temperature and Humidity ratio

(B) Relative humidity and wet bulb depression

(D) Dry bulb temperature and Relative Humidity

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The equilibrium moisture content of grains is primarily dependent on the dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of the surrounding air.

140. Thin layer and deep bed drying is mainly differentiated based on

(A) Type of dryer used

(B) Existence of drying zone and drying front

(D) Temperature for drying

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Thin layer and deep bed drying are differentiated based on the presence of a distinct drying zone and drying front. In deep bed drying, a drying front moves through the layer, while in thin layer drying, the entire layer dries simultaneously.

141. Which of the following statements are true about the moisture content of grains?

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The correct statements are (ii) and (iii). Direct methods of moisture determination, such as oven drying, are generally more precise than indirect methods. The infrared method is an indirect method. Statement (i) is incorrect; dry basis moisture content is numerically always higher than wet basis moisture content for the same amount of water and solids.

142. Psychrometry deals with the _____ properties of dry air-water vapour mixture

(A) Physical

(B) Chemical

(D) Thermodynamic

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Psychrometry is the study of the thermodynamic properties of gas-vapor mixtures, such as dry air and water vapour.

143. Which one of the following is not a direct method of moisture estimation?

(A) Air oven method

(B) Vacuum oven method

(D) Chemical method

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The air oven, vacuum oven, and chemical methods (e.g., Karl Fischer titration) are all direct methods of moisture estimation. The Infra red method is considered an indirect method.

144. Identify the property which is not related to mechanical properties?

(A) Hardness

(B) Impact resistance

(D) Density

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Hardness, impact resistance, and shear resistance are all mechanical properties of a material. Density is a physical property, not a mechanical one.

145. Diameters of largest inscribing and smallest circumscribing circle are required to determine

(A) Geometric mean diameter

(B) Equivalent diameter

(D) Roundness

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Sphericity is a measure of how closely an object approximates a sphere. It is determined by the ratio of the diameter of the largest inscribing circle to the diameter of the smallest circumscribing circle.

146. _____ type of shelterbelt considerably reduces the wind velocity by 30 to 40% of original wind speed.

(A) Impermeable

(B) Partially penetratable

(D) Stoppable

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A partially penetratable shelterbelt is more effective at reducing wind velocity over a greater distance than a fully dense one. It can reduce wind speed by 30% to 40%.

147. Universal soil loss equation (USLE) is _____ and it does not illustrate the actual soil erosion process.

(A) Mathematical

(B) Emphirical

(D) Critical

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Universal Soil Loss Equation (USLE) is an empirical model that estimates the average annual soil loss. It does not illustrate the actual physical processes of soil erosion.

148. A good _____ maintains the soil structure and conserves the moisture in the soil and act as wind erosion control.

(A) Crop rotation

(B) Grazing

(D) Harvested land

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A good crop rotation plan helps to maintain soil structure, conserve soil moisture, and acts as a control for wind erosion.

149. The straight drop spillway design the height of longitudinal sill(s) is computed by

(A) $S=\frac{4}{h}$

(B) $S=\frac{h}{4}$

(D) $S=\frac{2}{h}$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In the design of a straight drop spillway, the height of the longitudinal sill (S) is computed as half the height of the head of water (h), or $S=\frac{h}{2}$.

150. _____ type failure is very common in chute spillway.

(A) stilling

(B) piping

(D) sliding

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Piping is a common type of failure in chute spillways, where water seeps under the structure and erodes the foundation soil, forming a 'pipe' that can lead to structural collapse.

151. _____ outlet is most suitable to use in the chute spillway especially where channel grade below the structure is being unstable.

(A) simply supported type

(B) continuous type

(D) cantilever type

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A cantilever type outlet is the most suitable to use in a chute spillway when the channel grade below is unstable, as it can be extended over the unstable area without requiring support from it.

152. _____ spillways have the dual purpose of gully and flood control.

(A) chute

(B) box inlet

(D) earthern

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Drop inlet spillways are effective at controlling both gully erosion and floods, making them suitable for dual-purpose applications.

153. The staggered trenches are constructed for _____ length compared to graded trenches.

(A) shorter

(B) larger

(D) graded

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Staggered trenches are typically constructed in shorter lengths compared to graded trenches and are used to prevent erosion and conserve moisture on steep slopes.

154. _____ type terrace is constructed by taking the soil from both sides of the embankment.

(A) Retention terrace

(B) Broad base terrace

(D) Magnum type

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A broad base terrace is constructed by moving soil from both the uphill and downhill sides of the embankment to form a wide, flat channel.

155. _____ bench terraces are adopted in low rainfall areas with permeable soil.

(A) level

(B) sloping outward

(D) irrigated type

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Level bench terraces are adopted in low rainfall areas with permeable soil because they are designed to retain all the rainfall on the terrace, promoting infiltration.

156. _____ is a special type of bench terrace which is constructed by filling the soil behind the stone wall made at outer edge of the terrace width.

(A) Bench terrace sloping inward

(B) Bench terrace sloping outward

(D) Level bench terrace

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A bench terrace supported by a stone wall is a special type of terrace where a stone wall is constructed at the outer edge to retain the soil fill.

157. _____ gullies are found in the alluvial plains.

(A) V shaped

(B) U shaped

(D) Inactive

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: U-shaped gullies are typically found in alluvial plains and other areas with deep, uniform soil layers.

158. Strip cropping is done to control erosion caused by

(A) Snow fall

(B) Glaciers

(D) Channel erosion

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Strip cropping involves planting different crops in alternating strips across a slope. This is done to help control soil erosion caused by runoff.

159. _____ is the application of any plant residues or other materials to cover the top soil surface.

(A) Tillage

(B) Ploughing

(D) Mulching

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Mulching is the process of applying a layer of organic or inorganic material, such as plant residues, to the surface of the soil to conserve moisture and control weeds.

160. Plastic mulches are suitable for _____ in semi arid and arid regions.

(A) Taller plants

(B) Nurseries

(D) Garden plants

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Plastic mulches are particularly suitable for use in nurseries in semi-arid and arid regions because they effectively conserve moisture and control soil temperature, promoting seedling growth.

161. The Lambda sensor in an engine is used to measure

(A) Fuel pressure

(B) Exhaust gas temperature

(D) Engine oil level

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A Lambda sensor (or oxygen sensor) is a key component in modern internal combustion engines that measures the oxygen content in the exhaust gas to help regulate the air-fuel ratio.

162. Manometers measure the pressure by

(A) measuring the temperature changes in liquid

(B) measuring height difference of liquid columns

(D) using sound wave reflections

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Manometers are devices that measure pressure by balancing it against a column of liquid. Therefore, they work by measuring the height difference of liquid columns.

163. The purpose of air-bleeding in hydraulic brake systems is

(A) To prevent brake pedal failure

(B) To remove air bubbles from the brake fluid

(D) To increase the brake oil temperature

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The process of air-bleeding in a hydraulic brake system is done to remove trapped air bubbles from the brake fluid, as air can compress and cause a spongy feel to the brake pedal.

164. The inner end of the axle shaft is splined to the

(A) Sun gear

(B) Planet Pinion

(D) Differential case

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The inner end of the axle shaft is splined to the planet pinion gear in the differential assembly, allowing it to transmit torque to the road wheels.

165. The tractor engine transmission oil is checked for maintenance.

(A) Every 10 working hours

(B) Every 50 working hours

(D) Every 750 working hours

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The transmission oil in a tractor engine is typically checked for maintenance every 750 working hours.

166. The specific energy of battery is expressed in

(A) Δη

(B) $w/kg$

(D) wh

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Specific energy is the energy per unit mass. For a battery, it is expressed in units of Watt-hours per kilogram (wh/kg).

167. Spark-plug gap is measured by using

(A) ring gauge

(B) feeler gauge

(D) poker gauge

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A feeler gauge is a tool with a set of small blades of different thicknesses, used to accurately measure the gap of a spark plug.

168. Turbo charging of two-stroke engine eliminate the

(A) Cooling system

(B) Lubrication system

(D) Crankcase Ventilization

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In a two-stroke engine, a turbocharger provides forced air intake, which makes the engine more efficient and eliminates the need for crankcase scavenging.

169. High injection pressure in CI engine gives

(A) Good atomization and mixing rates

(B) Reduce heat losses

(D) Low $CO_{2}$ emission

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A high injection pressure in a Compression Ignition (CI) engine is critical for achieving good atomization and mixing rates of the fuel, which in turn leads to more efficient combustion.

170. Why tractors engine are heavier in construction is

(A) due to high efficiency

(B) due to high power

(D) due to high compression ratio

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Tractor engines are heavier in construction primarily because they are designed for high torque and low speed applications, often using diesel fuel, which operates at a high compression ratio.

171. In square engine, L-stroke length, D-diameter of bore

(A) $L>D$

(B) $L\lt D$

(D) $L=D$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A square engine is defined as an engine where the stroke length (L) is equal to the bore diameter (D), so $L=D$.

172. _____ nozzle is used for better cold starting.

(A) Pintaux

(B) Pintle

(D) Multi-hole

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A Pintaux nozzle is specifically designed to provide a small pilot spray for better cold starting in diesel engines.

173. Fuel filters do not use generally

(A) Oil

(B) Paper

(D) Felt

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Fuel filters typically use materials like paper, cloth, or felt to trap impurities. Oil is not generally used as a filtering medium in fuel filters.

174. Simplest form of a centrifugal governor.

(A) Watt Governor

(B) Hartnell governor

(D) Pickering governor

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Watt Governor is the simplest form of a centrifugal governor.

175. A centrifugal clutch is to be designed to transmit 15 Kw at 900 rpm. The inside radius of the Pulley rim is 150 mm. Find the angular running speed.

(A) $w=92.26~rad/s$

(B) $w=94.26~rad/s$

(D) $w=98.26~rad/s$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The angular running speed ($\omega$) is calculated from the speed in revolutions per minute (rpm) using the formula $\omega = \frac{2\pi N}{60}$.
Given N = 900 rpm.
$\omega = \frac{2 \times \pi \times 900}{60} = 30\pi \approx \textbf{94.26~rad/s}$.

176. What is the function of sector gear in recirculating ball steering gear?

(A) Actuate the link rod through drop arm

(B) Steers the road wheels through link rod

(D) Reduce the friction during the movement of the nut on the worm

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The sector gear in a recirculating ball steering gear is responsible for translating the rotational motion of the steering wheel into a linear motion that actuates the link rod through the drop arm.

177. Calculate the vertical height of a watt governor when it rotates at 60 RPM. Also find the change in vertical height when its speed increases to 61 RPM.

(A) 6 mm

(B) 8 mm

(D) 12 mm

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation:
Vertical height ($h$) of a Watt governor is given by $h = \frac{895}{N^2}$, where N is the speed in rpm.
For $N=60$ rpm, $h_1 = \frac{895}{60^2} = \frac{895}{3600} \approx 0.2486$ m = 248.6 mm.
For $N=61$ rpm, $h_2 = \frac{895}{61^2} = \frac{895}{3721} \approx 0.2405$ m = 240.5 mm.
Change in vertical height = $h_1 - h_2 = 248.6 - 240.5 = \textbf{8.1}$ mm.
There is a discrepancy in the provided correct answer. The closest numerical value is 9.5 mm, which might be the intended answer with a slight calculation error in the original question.

178. The load on the engine increases, the engine and governor speed

(A) decreases

(B) increases

(D) depends on the soil condition

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: When the load on an engine increases, the engine's speed will naturally slow down. The governor senses this decrease and adjusts the fuel supply to compensate. Therefore, the engine and governor speed decreases initially.

179. _____ is the over drive located.

(A) Between transmission and engine

(B) Between transmission and rear axle

(D) Between transmission and differential

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The overdrive unit is typically a gear set that provides an additional, higher gear ratio. It is located between the transmission and the rear axle.

180. What is the function of the differential lock on a tractor?

(A) Creating lower tractive force

(B) Improve fuel efficiency with less pollution

(D) Synchronize wheel speeds

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The function of a differential lock on a tractor is to mechanically connect both drive wheels, forcing them to rotate at the same speed. This effectively synchronizes the wheel speeds and improves traction on slippery or uneven surfaces.

181. The feed stocks which is used to produce Bio diesel is

(A) Corn starch

(B) Vegetable oils

(D) Natural gas

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Vegetable oils are the primary feedstock used in the production of biodiesel through a process called transesterification.

182. _____ stage of biofuel life cycle is responsible for most emissions.

(A) Feedstock cultivation

(B) Fuel combustion

(D) Fuel storage

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The feedstock cultivation stage is responsible for most of the emissions in the biofuel life cycle due to factors like land use change and fertilizer application.

183. For conversion of lignocellulosic biomass to ethanol which of the following is essential.

(A) Yeast only

(B) Mould only

(D) Yeast and Enzymes

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The conversion of lignocellulosic biomass into ethanol requires a two-step process: hydrolysis using enzymes to break down cellulose and hemicellulose into sugars, followed by fermentation of these sugars into ethanol using yeast.

184. Estimate the amount of $CO_{2}$ produced in kg per kilogram of ethanol, during complete combustion.

(A) 1.9

(B) 0.96

(D) 4.9

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The complete combustion of 1 kg of ethanol produces approximately 1.9 kg of carbon dioxide ($CO_2$).

185. In a hydro power plant identify the correct order of occurance of components along the flow

(A) Fore bay - Penstock - Surge tank - Tail race

(B) Fore bay - Surge tank - Penstock - Tail race

(D) Tail race - Penstock - Surge tank - Fore bay

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The correct order of components along the flow path of water in a hydropower plant is the forebay, which is a reservoir at the intake, followed by the penstock (the pipe carrying the water), then the surge tank (which protects the penstock from pressure fluctuations), and finally the tail race where the water exits the plant.

186. The core forms about _____ % of the earth's mass.

(A) 16.67

(B) 33

(D) 40

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Earth's core, composed mainly of iron and nickel, makes up about 40% of the Earth's mass.

187. The ratio of energy density to power density of a wave for a period of 5 seconds is

(A) 5

(B) $1/5$

(D) $1/25$

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The ratio of energy density to power density for a wave is equal to the wave's period. Therefore, for a wave with a period of 5 seconds, the ratio is 5.

188. The products of a Proton Exchange Membrane fuel cell are

(A) Electricity Only

(B) Heat Only

(D) Electricity, heat and water

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The products of a Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) fuel cell are electricity, heat, and water.

189. Match the following thermal processes

(a) Torrefaction - 1. excess amount of oxydant

(b) Pyrolysis - 2. incomplete amounts of oxydant

(d) Combustion - 4. absence of oxydant

(A) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1

(B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1

(D) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation:
- Torrefaction (a) is a thermal pretreatment process (3).
- Pyrolysis (b) is the thermal decomposition of biomass in the absence of an oxidant (4).
- Gasification (c) involves heating biomass with incomplete amounts of an oxidant (2).
- Combustion (d) is the rapid oxidation of a substance in the presence of an excess amount of oxidant (1).

190. Determine the efficiency of converting a tonne of wood with a heating value of 21 MJ/kg to biomass of heating value 35 MJ/kg when the biomass yield is 50%.

(A) 83.3%

(B) 95%

(D) 66.67%

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation:
The efficiency of conversion is given by the ratio of the energy in the output biomass to the energy in the input wood.
Input energy = (mass of wood) x (heating value of wood)
Output energy = (mass of biomass) x (heating value of biomass)
Mass of biomass = (biomass yield) x (mass of wood) = 0.50 x 1 tonne
Efficiency = $\frac{0.5 \text{ tonne} \times 35 \text{ MJ/kg}}{1 \text{ tonne} \times 21 \text{ MJ/kg}} \times 100\% = \frac{17.5}{21} \times 100\% = \textbf{83.3}\%$.

191. In the production of ethanol from sugar crops, starch crops and lignocellulosic crops which of the following processes are common

(A) Fermentation and distillation

(B) Saccharification and Fermentation

(D) Hydrolysis and distillation

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: All three types of crops undergo fermentation to convert sugars into ethanol and then distillation to separate and purify the ethanol.

192. Charcoal is a major coproduct of the processes such as

(A) Pyrolysis and gasification

(B) Combustion and pulverisation

(D) Pyrolysis and combustion

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Charcoal is a major byproduct of both pyrolysis and gasification, which are processes involving the thermal decomposition of biomass in a limited-oxygen or oxygen-free environment.

193. Identify the Betz's law related to

(A) Energy storage

(B) Efficiency of solar panels

(D) Fuel combustion

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Betz's law states the theoretical maximum efficiency for a wind turbine. It defines the maximum power that can be extracted from the wind as 59.3%.

194. Which of the following is a horizontal axis wind turbine?

(A) (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (ii)

(D) (ii) only

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (E)

Explanation: The Savonius and Darrieus types are both vertical-axis wind turbines. The propeller type is a horizontal-axis wind turbine. Since option A is "(iii) only" and option E is "Answer not known", and none of the other options contain the correct answer, the provided correct answer must be (E) based on a possible error in the original question's options.

195. Nacelle of a wind turbine houses

(A) The aerofoil blades

(B) The generator, gear box hydraulics system and yawing mechanism

(D) The power distribution system

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The nacelle is the casing at the top of a wind turbine tower that houses the key components such as the generator, gearbox, hydraulic system, and the yawing mechanism.

196. Wind speed frequency distribution is generally described by _____ probability distribution.

(A) Weibull

(B) Poisson

(D) Gaussian

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The frequency distribution of wind speed is most commonly and accurately described by the Weibull probability distribution.

197. In a solar flat plate collector, the top loss coefficient can be determined by considering _____ losses from the absorber plate in the _____ direction.

(A) Convection, radiation and upward

(B) Conduction, radiation, upward

(D) Conduction, radiation, downward

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: In a solar flat-plate collector, the top loss coefficient is determined by considering the combined convection and radiation losses that occur in the upward direction from the absorber plate.

198. The concentration ratio of a cylindrical parabolic solar concentrator of 2.5 m width and 9 m length when the outside diameter of the absorber tube is 6.5 cm is about

(A) 12

(B) 24

(D) 06

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B)

Explanation:
The concentration ratio (CR) for a cylindrical parabolic solar concentrator is given by the formula $CR = \frac{\text{Aperture Width}}{\text{Absorber Diameter}}$.
Aperture Width = 2.5 m
Absorber Diameter = 6.5 cm = 0.065 m
$CR = \frac{2.5}{0.065} \approx \textbf{38.46}$.
There seems to be an error in the question's provided options, as none of them match the calculated value. However, the closest option among the choices is 24.

199. In a cabinet solar dryer which uses no external power source _____ air enters at the _____ and _____ air leaves at the _____.

(A) Cool, bottom, hot, top

(B) Hot, bottom, cool, top

(D) Cool, top, hot, bottom

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A natural convection-based cabinet solar dryer works on the principle that hot air rises. Therefore, cool air enters at the bottom, gets heated inside the dryer, and hot air leaves at the top.

200. The optimum band gap of a solar PV should be in the range

(A) 1.1 to 2.3 eV

(B) 1.1 to 2.3 V

(D) 0.6 to 2.3 V

(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The optimum band gap for a solar photovoltaic (PV) material, based on the solar spectrum, should be in the range of 0.6 to 2.3 eV to absorb a wide range of photons efficiently.

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