TNPSC Civil Engineering (Code: 443): Answer key
TNPSC Civil Engineering (Code 443): Answer key
1. The angle of twist is ______ to twisting moment.
A. Inversely proportional
B. Equal
C. Directly proportional
D. Greater than (or) equal to
Explanation: According to the torsion equation, the angle of
twist is directly proportional to the twisting moment (Torque). The
torsion formula is given by: $T/J = G\theta/L = \tau/R$. Here, $\theta$
(angle of twist) is directly proportional to T (twisting moment).
2. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever beam is $4\times10^{6}Nmm$,
its section modulus is $4000~mm^{3}$ its maximum bending stress is equal
to ______
A. $4000~N/mm^{2}$
B. $10,000~N/mm^{2}$
C. $1000~N/mm^{2}$
D. $40,000~N/mm^{2}$
Explanation: The relationship between bending stress ($\sigma$),
bending moment (M), and section modulus (Z) is given by the bending
equation: $M/I = \sigma/y$, or $\sigma = M/Z$. Given $M =
4\times10^{6}~Nmm$ and $Z = 4000~mm^{3}$, the maximum bending stress is
$\sigma_{max} = M/Z = (4\times10^{6}) / 4000 = 1000~N/mm^{2}$.
3. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft is given by the relation,
_______
A. T = $\tau\times\frac{\pi}{16}[\frac{D^{4}-d^{4}}{D}]$
B. T = $\tau\times\frac{\pi}{32}[\frac{D^{4}-d^{4}}{D}]$
C. T = $\tau\times\frac{\pi}{16}[\frac{D^{3}-d^{3}}{D}]$
D. T = $\tau\times\frac{\pi}{32}[\frac{D^{3}-d^{3}}{D}]$
Explanation: The torsion equation for a hollow shaft is given by
$T/J = \tau/R$, where $J$ is the polar moment of inertia and $R$ is the
outer radius. For a hollow circular section, $J = \frac{\pi}{32}(D^4 -
d^4)$ and $R = D/2$. Substituting these values into the torsion
equation: $T = \tau \times (J/R) = \tau \times
\frac{(\pi/32)(D^4-d^4)}{D/2} = \tau \times
\frac{\pi}{16}[\frac{D^{4}-d^{4}}{D}]$.
4. A frame in which the number of members is more than $(2j-3)$ is known
as ______
A. Perfect frame
B. Deficient frame
C. Redundant frame
D. Cantilever frame
Explanation: A perfect frame is one that satisfies the condition
$m = 2j - 3$. A deficient frame has $m < 2j - 3$, and a redundant frame
has $m > 2j - 3$, where 'm' is the number of members and 'j' is the
number of joints.
5. A solid circular shaft of length 2 m and diameter 0.02 m is made of
steel with shear modulus 80 GPa. Calculate polar moment of inertia of
the shaft.
A. $5\times10^{-8}m^{4}$
B. $0.5\pi\times10^{-8}m^{4}$
C. $0.5\times10^{-8}m^{4}$
D. $5\pi\times10^{-8}m^{4}$
Explanation: The formula for the polar moment of inertia (J) of a
solid circular shaft is $J = \frac{\pi}{32}d^4$. Given diameter, $d =
0.02~m$. $J = \frac{\pi}{32}(0.02)^4 = \frac{\pi}{32}(16\times10^{-8}) =
\frac{\pi}{2}\times10^{-8} = 0.5\pi\times10^{-8}~m^{4}$.
6. Moment of resistance of the section 'M' is equal to ______
A. $M = \frac{\sigma}{Z}$
B. $M = \sigma\times Z$
C. $M = \sigma+Z$
D. $M = \sigma-Z$
Explanation: The bending equation is $\frac{M}{I} =
\frac{\sigma}{y}$. Rearranging gives $M = \sigma \times \frac{I}{y}$.
Since the section modulus is $Z = \frac{I}{y}$, the moment of resistance
(M) is equal to the product of bending stress ($\sigma$) and section
modulus (Z), i.e., $M = \sigma \times Z$.
7. Section modulus of a solid circular section is given by ______
(where, $d=$ diameter)
A. $\frac{\pi d^{3}}{64}$
B. $\frac{\pi d^{3}}{32}$
C. $\frac{\pi d^{4}}{64}$
D. $\frac{\pi d^{2}}{16}$
Explanation: The section modulus (Z) is defined as the ratio of
the moment of inertia (I) to the distance of the outermost fiber from
the neutral axis (y). For a solid circular section, $I = \frac{\pi
d^4}{64}$ and $y = d/2$. Therefore, $Z = \frac{I}{y} = \frac{\pi
d^4/64}{d/2} = \frac{\pi d^3}{32}$.
8. A steel wire of 10 mm diameter is bent into a circular shape of 5 m
radius. $E=2\times10^{5}\frac{N}{mm^{2}}$. The maximum bending stress
induced in the wire is ______
A. $20~N/mm^{2}$
B. 200 MPa
C. 20 kPa
D. 200 GPa
Explanation: The maximum bending stress ($\sigma$) is calculated
using the bending equation: $\frac{\sigma}{y} = \frac{E}{R}$. We are
given: $y = d/2 = 10/2 = 5~mm$, $E = 2\times10^5~N/mm^2$, and $R = 5~m =
5000~mm$. Therefore, $\sigma = \frac{E \times y}{R} = \frac{2\times10^5
\times 5}{5000} = 200~N/mm^2$. Since $1~MPa = 1~N/mm^2$, the stress is
200 MPa.
9. If hollow circular section has outer diameter 'D' and inner diameter
'd'. What is the value of Moment of Inertia?
A. $\pi/{64}(D^{4}-d^{4})$
B. $\pi/{64}(D^{3}-d^{3})$
C. $\pi/{4}(D^{4}-d^{4})$
D. $\pi/{4}(D^{3}-d^{3})$
Explanation: The moment of inertia (I) for a hollow circular
section about its neutral axis is given by $I =
\frac{\pi}{64}(D^4-d^4)$, where D is the outer diameter and d is the
inner diameter.
10. A hollow shaft of same cross-sectional area as compared to a solid
shaft will transmit?
A. same torque
B. less torque
C. more torque
D. unpredictable
Explanation: For the same cross-sectional area, a hollow shaft
has a larger polar moment of inertia compared to a solid shaft. Since
torque transmitted is directly proportional to the polar moment of
inertia, a hollow shaft can transmit more torque than a solid shaft of
the same material and cross-sectional area.
11. In simply supported beams, shear force is maximum at _______
A. The center
B. The centroid of the beam
C. The supports
D. The point of zero BM
Explanation: For a simply supported beam with a uniformly
distributed load or a central point load, the maximum shear force occurs
at the supports.
12. Match the following:
A. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
B. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
C. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
D. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
13. The maximum shear force in the beam will be ______
14. The deformation per unit length is called ______
A. strain
B. tensile stress
C. compressive stress
D. shear stress
Explanation: Strain is the measure of the deformation of a body
under load. It is defined as the change in dimension per unit of
original dimension. For tensile or compressive loads, it is the change
in length per unit length.
15. The total change in length of a bar of different sections is equal
to the ______
A. sum of changes in the length of different sections
B. average of changes in the lengths of different sections
C. difference of changes in the lengths of sections
D. sum of changes in the half length of different sections
Explanation: When a bar is composed of different sections
subjected to the same axial load, the total elongation or change in
length is the algebraic sum of the changes in length of each individual
section. This is a fundamental principle of mechanics.
16. An elastic bar of cross sectional area $400~mm^{2}$ carries an axial
tensile load of 600 kN, the stress on the bar is equal to ______
A. $6000~N/mm^{2}$
B. $4000~N/mm^{2}$
C. $1500~N/mm^{2}$
D. $2500~N/mm^{2}$
Explanation: Stress ($\sigma$) is calculated as force (P) per
unit area (A), i.e., $\sigma = P/A$. Given: $P = 600~kN =
600\times10^3~N$ and $A = 400~mm^2$. So, $\sigma =
\frac{600\times10^3}{400} = 1500~N/mm^{2}$.
17. Within elastic limit in a loaded member of material, stress is
_______ to strain.
A. inversely proportional
B. directly proportional
C. independent of
D. equal to
Explanation: According to Hooke's Law, within the elastic limit,
the stress in a material is directly proportional to the strain
produced. This relationship is a fundamental concept in the study of
material properties.
18. If 'l' and '$\delta l$' are the length and change in length
respectively, the strain is equal to ______
A. $l /\delta l$
B. $\delta l/l$
C. $l \times \delta l$
D. $\delta l^{2}$
Explanation: Strain ($\epsilon$) is defined as the ratio of the
change in length to the original length. Therefore, $\epsilon =
\frac{\delta l}{l}$.
19. The internal resistance which the body offers to meet the load or
external force is called _______
A. Pressure
B. Strain
C. Stress
D. Young's modulus
Explanation: Stress is the internal resistance or resisting force
per unit area that a body offers to an externally applied load. It is an
internal property of the material.
20. The ratio of shear stress to the corresponding shear strain within
the elastic limit is known as ______
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Poisson's ratio
Explanation: The Modulus of Rigidity (G), also known as the Shear
Modulus, is the ratio of shear stress ($\tau$) to shear strain
($\gamma$) within the proportional limit. It is a measure of a
material's resistance to shear deformation.
21. When a steel member is subjected to tension, the area of cross
section continuously change due to
A. the poisson effect
B. the longitudinal strain
C. the shear
D. the bending moment
Explanation: When a material is subjected to axial tension, it
elongates in the direction of the force and simultaneously contracts
laterally. This phenomenon, known as the Poisson effect, causes a
continuous change in the cross-sectional area.
22. The ratio of a effective length to corresponding radius of gyration
is
A. Slenderness ratio
B. Moment of inertia
C. Design value
D. Buckling stress
Explanation: The slenderness ratio is defined as the ratio of the
effective length of a column to its least radius of gyration. It is a
crucial parameter in determining the buckling behaviour of compression
members.
23. Web crippling generally occurs at the point where
A. Bending moment is maximum
B. Shear force is minimum
C. Deflection is maximum
D. Concentrated loads act
Explanation: Web crippling is a type of failure in beams where
the web buckles under a concentrated load or at a support. This type of
failure is localised and occurs due to high compressive stresses under
the load.
24. In rolled steel beams, shear force is mostly resisted by
A. Web only
B. Flange only
C. Web and flange together
D. Thickness and flange
Explanation: For I-sections, the web is thin but deep, and it
resists most of the shear force. The flanges, being far from the neutral
axis, primarily resist the bending moment.
25. As per IS 800-2007, the effective slenderness ratio
$(\frac{KL}{r})_{e}$ of battened columns, shall be taken as how much
times of $(\frac{KL}{r})_{o}$ (The maximum actual slenderness ratio of
the column)?
A. 1
B. 1.05
C. 1.08
D. 1.1
Explanation: As per IS 800-2007, Clause 7.6.6.1, the effective
slenderness ratio of a battened column is to be increased by 10% to
account for shear deformation. Therefore, the effective slenderness
ratio, $(\frac{KL}{r})_{e}$, is taken as 1.1 times the maximum actual
slenderness ratio.
26. The minimum thickness at the edge of the footing that rests on soils
shall be
A. 150 mm
B. 125 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 75 mm
Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, Clause 34.1.2, the minimum
thickness of a reinforced concrete footing on soil at its edge shall not
be less than 150 mm.
27. Which of the following statements are true about design of
compression member?
(i) Slenderness ratio should be minimum
(ii)
Slenderness ratio should be large
(iii) Radius of gyration should be
large
A. (i) only
B. (iii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i) and (iii) only
Explanation: For the design of a compression member, the
slenderness ratio (L_eff/r) should be as low as possible to prevent
buckling. A larger radius of gyration (r) leads to a lower slenderness
ratio, making the column more stable and increasing its load-carrying
capacity. Hence, both statements (i) and (iii) are true.
28. The effective length of the column with one end fixed and the other
end hinged shall be
A. $1.0 l$
B. $2l$
C. $l/2$
D. $l/\sqrt{2}$
Explanation: As per IS 456, for a column with one end fixed and
the other hinged, the effective length is $L_{eff} = L/\sqrt{2} =
0.707L$. The question provides a different set of options; however, if
$1.0/\sqrt{2}$ is intended, that would be the closest. The options are
$1.0l$, $2l$, $l/2$, and $l/\sqrt{2}$. The correct one is $l/\sqrt{2}$
or $0.707l$.
29. The minimum eccentricity to be considered for an axially loaded
circular column of diameter 300 mm with unsupported length of 6 m is
A. 20 mm
B. 21 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 22 mm
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, Clause 25.4, the minimum
eccentricity ($e_{min}$) is given by $e_{min} = \frac{L}{500} +
\frac{D}{30}$, but not less than 20 mm. Given: Unsupported length, L = 6
m = 6000 mm; Diameter, D = 300 mm. $e_{min} = \frac{6000}{500} +
\frac{300}{30} = 12 + 10 = 22~mm$. Since this value is greater than 20
mm, the minimum eccentricity is 22 mm.
30. Which of the following statement is true about design of footing?
(i) The minimum cover to reinforcement is 50 mm under normal condition
(ii) The minimum cover to reinforcement is 75 mm under exposure
condition
(iii) Minimum reinforcement of footing is 0.002% of width of
footing
A. (i) only
B. (ii) only
C. (i) and (ii) only
D. (iii) and (i) only
Explanation: Based on IS 456-2000, Clause 26.4.2.2, the minimum
cover for footings is 50 mm. Statement (i) is correct. Statement (ii) is
incorrect, as the minimum cover for exposure conditions is not specified
as 75 mm in IS 456-2000. Statement (iii) is incorrect; the minimum
reinforcement in footings is a percentage of the gross cross-sectional
area, not the width.
31. The lintels support stone or brick masonry over the openings and
transfer all the loads to the side walls by
A. Arch action
B. Linear action
C. Tapered bars
D. Threaded rods
Explanation: A lintel transfers the load from the masonry above
it to the side walls by creating a triangular-shaped "arch action." This
triangular area of masonry is self-supporting, and the lintel only
carries the load within this triangle.
32. Sometimes, the tread is projected outwards for aesthetics or to
provide more space. This projection is called the
A. Going
B. Nosing
C. Riser
D. Waist slab
Explanation: Nosing is the projecting part of a stair tread
beyond the face of the riser. It is primarily for aesthetic purposes and
to provide more foot space on the stair.
33. For design of slab as per IS 456-2000, the diameter of reinforcing
bars shall not exceed
A. $1/6^{th}$ of total thickness of the slab
B. $1/8^{th}$ of total thickness of the slab
C. $1/10^{th}$ of total thickness of the slab
D. $1/12^{th}$ of total thickness of the slab
Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, Clause 26.5.2.2, the diameter of
a reinforcing bar in a slab should not exceed one-eighth of the total
thickness of the slab.
34. Sunshades are designed as
A. one way slab
B. cantilever slabs
C. two way slab
D. continuous slab
Explanation: Sunshades (chajjas) are typically designed as
cantilever slabs, projecting from a wall to provide protection from sun
and rain. They are supported at one end only, which is why they are
classified as cantilever structures.
35. Torsional reinforcement in a two way slab is not provided when
A. Continuous edges in all sides
B. Two long edges are continuous
C. Two short edges are discontinuous
D. Three edges are discontinuous
Explanation: Torsional reinforcement is provided in two-way slabs
at discontinuous corners. If all four edges are continuous, there is no
corner discontinuity, and thus, no need for torsional reinforcement.
36. As per IS 456-2000 the characteristic strength in $N/mm^{2}$
concrete for ordinary concrete ranges from
A. $10-15$
B. $15-25$
C. $10-20$
D. $15-30$
Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, ordinary concrete is defined by
grades M10, M15, and M20. Their characteristic compressive strengths are
10 $N/mm^2$, 15 $N/mm^2$, and 20 $N/mm^2$ respectively. Therefore, the
range is from 10-20 $N/mm^2$.
37. As per IS 456-2000, unit weight of concrete with reinforcement shall
be
A. $19~kN/m^{3}$
B. $20~kN/m^{3}$
C. $22~kN/m^{3}$
D. $25~kN/m^{3}$
Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, the unit weight of plain
concrete is taken as 24 $kN/m^3$, and the unit weight of reinforced
concrete is taken as 25 $kN/m^3$ for design calculations.
38. As per IS 456-2000, the permissible shear stress of concrete without
reinforcement is calculated using,
A. The number of main reinforcement
B. Depth of beam
C. Grade of steel
D. Percentage of steel and grade of concrete
Explanation: The permissible shear stress of concrete, without
shear reinforcement, is denoted as $\tau_c$. As per IS 456-2000, the
value of $\tau_c$ depends on the percentage of tensile steel ($p_t$) and
the grade of concrete ($f_{ck}$).
39. The IS code used for the design of plain and reinforced concrete is
A. IS 456-2000
B. IS 800-2007
C. IS 883-1994
D. IS 2858-1984
Explanation: IS 456-2000 is the Indian Standard for Plain and
Reinforced Concrete - Code of Practice. IS 800-2007 is for steel
structures, and IS 883-1994 is for timber structures.
40.
1. A doubly reinforced beam is provided to increase the strength of
a beam with limited dimensions.
2. To increase the ductility of the beam
is another reason for the provision of doubly reinforced sections.
A. 1 and 2 are true
B. 1 and 2 are false
C. 1 is true and 2 is false
D. 1 is false and 2 is true
Explanation: Both statements are true. A doubly reinforced beam
is used when the beam dimensions are restricted and the moment of
resistance of a singly reinforced beam is insufficient. The provision of
compression reinforcement also increases the ductility of the beam
section.
41. What is the purpose of docking area in a harbour?
A. To monitor ship activity
B. To unload cargo and store goods
C. To control the movement of waves
D. To store water for ships
Explanation: A docking area is a designated space within a
harbour for ships to berth for purposes such as unloading and loading
cargo, or undergoing maintenance.
42. What is the primary purpose of a Quay Wall in harbour construction?
A. To monitor vessel activities
B. To provide space for unloading cargo from ships
C. To store ships temporarily
D. To filter incoming seawater
Explanation: A quay wall is a solid structure built parallel to
the shore. Its primary purpose is to provide a solid face against which
ships can moor, and an area for cargo to be loaded and unloaded directly
from the ship to the land.
43. Which of the following is not a fixture in rails?
A. Chains
B. Tables
C. Fish plate
D. Bearing plate
Explanation: Fixtures are devices used to secure the rail to the
sleepers. Common fixtures include chains, fish plates, and bearing
plates. Tables are not a component of a rail system.
44. Rail gauge is the distance between
A. inner faces of the sleepers
B. outer faces of the sleepers
C. outer faces of the rails
D. inner faces of the rails
Explanation: Rail gauge is the clear perpendicular distance
between the inner faces of the two rails that form a track.
45. Road Arboriculture means
A. Plantation of trees on both sides of road
B. Well night lighting
C. Well drainage of road
D. A very good road alignment
Explanation: Road arboriculture refers to the practice of
planting and maintaining trees and other vegetation along roadsides.
46. The Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) is an elevated suburban railway
in
A. Chennai
B. Mumbai
C. Delhi
D. Kolkatta
Explanation: The Mass Rapid Transit System (MRTS) in India is an
elevated suburban railway system located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
47. In consistency of soil, the limits are expressed in terms of
A. Percentage of Water content
B. Area
C. Volume
D. All of the mentioned
Explanation: The consistency limits of soil, including liquid
limit, plastic limit, and shrinkage limit, are defined and expressed in
terms of the percentage of water content at which the soil changes its
state.
48. In particle size classification ______ system, the soils are
classified according to
A. Grain size
B. Properties of soil
C. Shapes of particles
D. Solubility
Explanation: In various particle size classification systems,
such as the Unified Soil Classification System, soils are categorized
based on the size of their constituent grains.
49. Which of the following is not useful for Engineering purpose, as
proposed by Atterberg?
A. Plastic limit
B. Liquid limit
C. Solid limit
D. Shrinkage limit
Explanation: The Atterberg limits, which are used to determine
the consistency of fine-grained soils, consist of the liquid limit,
plastic limit, and shrinkage limit. The term "solid limit" is not one of
the Atterberg limits used in engineering.
50. In soil classification, inorganic silt with high plasticity is
denoted as
Explanation: According to the Unified Soil Classification System,
inorganic silts are denoted by the letter 'M'. The letter 'H' indicates
high plasticity (Liquid Limit > 50%), and 'L' indicates low plasticity
(Liquid Limit < 50%). Therefore, MH represents inorganic silt with high
plasticity.
51. Plasticity Index $(I_{P})$ is calculated as
A. $I_{P}=LL-PL$
B. $I_{P}=LL-SL$
C. $I_{P}=PL-SL$
D. $I_{P}=SL-PL$
Explanation: The plasticity index ($I_{P}$) is a measure of the
plasticity of a soil. It is the numerical difference between the liquid
limit (LL) and the plastic limit (PL). The formula is $I_{P} = LL - PL$.
52. Soil mass has a
A. Single phase system
B. Two phase system
C. Three phase system
D. Four phase system
Explanation: A soil mass typically consists of three phases:
solid particles, water, and air. This is referred to as a three-phase
system.
53. The part of a bridge structure provided to distribute the load
coming from the superstructure to the substructure and also to allow for
longitudinal and angular movements
A. Girder (or) truss
B. Decking
C. Approaches to the bridge
D. Bearing
Explanation: Bearings are components that transfer the loads from
the bridge deck and superstructure to the piers and abutments. They also
accommodate movements, such as expansion and contraction, rotation, and
translation, to prevent damage to the structure.
54. Maximum dry density is got at
A. Minimum water content
B. Maximum water content
C. Optimum moisture content
D. Optimum water content
Explanation: The maximum dry density of a soil is achieved at a
specific water content known as the optimum moisture content. At this
point, the soil particles are packed most efficiently, leading to
maximum density.
55. One of the natural factors influencing camber is
A. type of material used for wearing coarse
B. topography of the area
C. nature of subsoil met with
D. the amount of rainfall
Explanation: Camber, or the cross-slope of a road, is provided to
drain rainwater from the road surface. Therefore, the amount of rainfall
in the region is a critical factor influencing the required camber.
56. The pavement layers that transmit the vertical (or) compressive
stresses to the lower layers by grain to grain transfer through the
point of contact in the granular structure is called
A. flexible pavement
B. rigid pavement
C. concrete pavement
D. block pavement
Explanation: Flexible pavements are composed of several granular
layers that transfer load to the subgrade by grain-to-grain contact,
distributing the compressive stress over a larger area.
57. Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping
sight distance is
A. Less
B. More
C. Same
D. Dependent on the speed
Explanation: On a descending gradient, gravity assists the
vehicle's motion, increasing the braking distance required to stop.
Therefore, the stopping sight distance is more than on a level surface.
58. Choose the correct statement from the following regarding super
elevation
(i) It results, faster and safer movement of vehicles on
curves
(ii) Maintenance cost of road on curve is reduced
A. (i) only true
B. (ii) only true
C. both (i) and (ii) true
D. both (i) and (ii) false
Explanation: Super elevation (or banking of roads) is the
transverse slope provided to counteract the centrifugal force, allowing
vehicles to take curves at higher speeds safely. This reduces the
lateral pressure on the road, which in turn can lead to reduced
maintenance costs.
59. The changes in gradient and vertical curve are covered under which
type of alignment?
A. Horizontal alignment
B. Vertical alignment
C. Geometric alignment
D. Highway
Explanation: Vertical alignment refers to the profile of the road
along its length, which includes gradients (upward or downward slopes)
and vertical curves to provide a smooth transition between them.
60. Exceptional gradient shall not exceed in plains
A. $1:20$
B. $1:15$
C. $1:25$
D. $1:30$
Explanation: As per Indian Roads Congress (IRC) standards, the
exceptional gradient in plain or rolling terrain should not be steeper
than 1 in 20.
61. Choose the correct statement from the following.
(i) The end support
of the bridge is known as abutment.
(ii) The intermediate support of the
bridge is known as pier.
A. (i) only true
B. (ii) only true
C. both (i) and (ii) true
D. both (i) and (ii) false
Explanation: Abutments are the supports at the ends of a
bridge that carry the load from the superstructure and also retain the
earth fill of the bridge approach. Piers are the intermediate
supports located between the abutments. Both statements are correct.
62. The roads passing through hilly terrain and leading to the villages
and towns near hills are called
A. Village road
B. State highway
C. Hill road
D. City road
Explanation: Roads built to navigate the difficult topography of
hilly regions, and to connect communities in those areas, are
specifically called hill roads.
63. What is the main purpose of using fine stone dust (or) screenings in
a Water Bound Macadam (WBM) road?
A. To provide waterproofing
B. To bind the coarse aggregates and fill the voids
C. To act as a sub-base material
D. To increase the thickness of the road
Explanation: In a Water Bound Macadam (WBM) road, fine stone
screenings are spread over the coarse aggregate layer. Their main
purpose is to fill the voids between the aggregates and, when watered
and rolled, act as a binding agent to create a stable, interlocked
layer.
64. Which one of the following factors is not to be considered while
fixing thickness of the slab in concrete roads?
A. Wheel load
B. Friction between slab and sub-grade
C. Temperature variation
D. Rainfall variation
Explanation: The thickness of a rigid concrete pavement slab is
determined by factors such as the design wheel load, the subgrade
support, and stresses caused by temperature and moisture variations.
Rainfall variation is not a direct factor in determining the thickness
of a concrete pavement slab.
65. Breast walls in hill roads is provided to
A. prevent the cut hill from sliding
B. prevent avalanches along hill roads
C. drain away water from upper regions
D. prevent flooding along hill roads
Explanation: Breast walls are retaining walls built to support
the earth fill of a hillside and prevent the hill from sliding or
eroding away, particularly where a road has been cut into the slope.
66. In image analysis, which of the following refers to a "natural"
color composite?
A. Red, green and blue bands
B. Infrared, red and green bands
C. Green, yellow and blue bands
D. Red, blue and yellow bands
Explanation: A natural color composite in remote sensing
is an image created by assigning the red, green, and blue spectral bands
to the corresponding red, green, and blue colors of the display monitor.
This creates an image that appears similar to what the human eye would
see.
67. Which one of the following attributes is not associated with digital
maps?
A. Colour
B. Symbology
C. Legends
D. South arrow
Explanation: Digital maps are primarily composed of data, not
physical orientation. While they may display an arrow indicating north,
a static "South arrow" is not an inherent attribute of a digital map in
the same way that colour, symbology (symbols), and legends are.
68. Which of the following indicates the correct set of the combination
of total station?
A. Theodolite, compass
B. Electronic theodolite, EDM
C. EDM, theodolite
D. Electronic theodolite, compass
Explanation: A Total Station is an electronic surveying
instrument that combines an electronic theodolite (for measuring
horizontal and vertical angles) and an Electronic Distance Measurement
(EDM) device.
69. Choose the correct statement about GIS. (i) In raster data type,
digital image represented in grids. (ii) Raster data also allows easy
implementation of overlay operations, which are more difficult with
vector data.
A. (i) true and (ii) false
B. (i) false and (ii) true
C. both (i) and (ii) true
D. both (i) and (ii) false
Explanation: A raster data model represents data as a grid
of pixels or cells, where each cell has a specific value. This is a
common way to represent satellite imagery and aerial photographs.
Overlay operations (combining layers) are generally simpler and
computationally faster with raster data because the cell-based structure
is uniform. Therefore, both statements are correct.
70. Over turning of vehicles on the curve can be avoided by introducing
A. compound curve
B. simple curve
C. reverse curve
D. transition curve
Explanation: Overturning is a critical consideration on curves. A
transition curve is a gradually varying curve introduced between
a straight section and a circular curve to gradually introduce
superelevation, allowing vehicles to change direction and speed smoothly
and safely without overturning.
71. Passive remote sensing is when
A. The remote sensing is done from the ground
B. The remote sensing is done from an aircraft
C. Satellites are used for remote sensing
D. External energy source is used for remote sensing
Explanation: Passive remote sensing systems detect and measure
natural radiation that is emitted or reflected by the object or scene
being observed. This relies on an external energy source such as
the sun. Active remote sensing systems, by contrast, emit their own
energy to illuminate the object.
72. Which of the following can be affected by atmospheric path
disturbances?
A. Modern GPS surveying
B. Chain surveying
C. Compass surveying
D. Resection method
Explanation: Modern GPS surveying relies on radio signals
transmitted from satellites. These signals can be delayed or distorted
as they pass through the Earth's atmosphere (e.g., the ionosphere and
troposphere), which is a common source of error known as atmospheric
path disturbances.
73. The least count of Vernier of an ordinary theodolite is
A. $20''$
B. $20'$
C. $20^{\circ}$
D. $0''$
Explanation: The least count of a Vernier scale is the
smallest measurement that can be made with the instrument. For an
ordinary theodolite, the least count of its Vernier scale is typically
20 seconds ($20''$).
74. The multiplying constant in the distance formula by Tacheometry is
given by
A. $f+d$
B. $f-d$
C. $f/i$
D. $i/f$
Explanation: In tacheometry, the horizontal distance (D) to a
staff is calculated using the formula: $D = KS + C$. Here, 'K' is the
multiplying constant, which is equal to the ratio of the focal length of
the objective lens ($f$) to the staff intercept ($i$), i.e., $K = f/i$.
'C' is the additive constant, which is $f+d$.
75. Which formula is used for calculating length of the curve ($l$) in
circular curve? Where R – Radius of the curve Δ – Deflection angle
A. $l=\frac{R\Delta}{180}$
B. $l=\frac{\pi R\Delta}{180}$
C. $l=\frac{R\Delta}{360}$
D. $l=\frac{\pi R\Delta}{360}$
Explanation: The length of a circular curve is the length of the
arc from the point of curve to the point of tangency. It is calculated
by the formula $l = \frac{\pi R\Delta}{180}$, where R is the radius and
$\Delta$ is the deflection angle in degrees.
76. In which formula is used for calculating tangent length (T) of
circular curve? Where R – Radius of the curve Δ – Deflection angle
A. $T=R~sin\frac{\Delta}{2}$
B. $T=R~cos\frac{\Delta}{2}$
C. $T=R~tan\frac{\Delta}{2}$
D. $T=R~sec\frac{\Delta}{2}$
Explanation: The tangent length of a circular curve is the
distance from the point of intersection of the two tangents to the point
of curve or the point of tangency. It is calculated as $T =
R~tan(\Delta/2)$, where R is the radius and $\Delta$ is the deflection
angle.
77. Cross-sectioning and longitudinal sectioning is
A. Simple levelling
B. Differential levelling
C. Profile levelling
D. Check levelling
Explanation: Profile levelling is a type of levelling used
to determine elevations along a line or a series of points, such as the
centerline of a road or sewer. It includes both longitudinal sectioning
(determining the profile along the main line) and cross-sectioning
(determining the profile at right angles to the main line).
78. The additive constant of a Tacheometer is denoted by
A. $\frac{f}{i}$
B. $\frac{i}{f}$
C. $f \times d$
D. $f+d$
Explanation: In tacheometry, the horizontal distance formula is
$D = KS + C$. The additive constant 'C' is the sum of the focal length
of the objective lens ($f$) and the distance from the vertical axis of
the instrument to the objective lens ($d$), i.e., $C = f+d$.
79. For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than
A. $20^{\circ}$
B. $30^{\circ}$
C. $45^{\circ}$
D. $90^{\circ}$
Explanation: In triangulation, a well-conditioned triangle is one
where small errors in angular measurements do not significantly affect
the accuracy of the computed side lengths. For this reason, it is
considered ideal to have angles between $30^{\circ}$ and $120^{\circ}$.
An angle less than $30^{\circ}$ is considered to be a poorly conditioned
triangle.
80. The error in measured length due to sag of a chain (or) tape is
known as
A. Instrumental error
B. Compensating error
C. Positive error
D. Negative error
Explanation: Sag is the vertical drop of a tape or chain due to
its own weight when held between two supports. This causes the measured
length to be longer than the true horizontal distance, leading to a
positive error. The correction applied for sag is therefore
negative.
81. When the length of a chain along a slope of is (l), the correction
for slope required is
A. $l(1-sin~\theta)$
B. $l(1-tan~\theta)$
C. $l(1-cos~\theta)$
D. $l(1-cos^{2}\theta)$
Explanation: The correction for slope is applied to the measured
length on a sloping ground to obtain the true horizontal distance. If
the measured length is $L$ and the angle of slope is $\theta$, the
horizontal distance is $L \cos\theta$. The correction is the difference
between the measured length and the horizontal distance, which is $L - L
\cos\theta = L(1 - \cos\theta)$.
82. As a general rule, the accuracy of elevations obtained from a
contour map is typically limited to
A. Contour interval
B. $\frac{1}{2}\times$ contour interval
C. $\frac{1}{4}\times$ contour interval
D. 2 part of contour interval
Explanation: The accuracy of elevations interpolated from a
contour map is generally limited to half of the contour interval. This
is because values are estimated between the contour lines, and half the
interval represents a reasonable degree of precision.
83. The survey which in observations of heavenly bodies such as sun or
any other fixed star, is known as
A. Cadestral survey
B. Astrological survey
C. Photographic survey
D. Astronomical survey
Explanation: An Astronomical survey is a type of survey
that uses observations of celestial bodies like the sun or stars to
determine the absolute location and orientation of points on the Earth's
surface.
84. The magnetic bearing of a line is $62^{\circ}30'$. What is the true
bearing if the magnetic declination is $4^{\circ}10'E$?
A. $4^{\circ}10'$
B. $58^{\circ}20'$
C. $62^{\circ}30'$
D. $66^{\circ}40'$
Explanation: When the magnetic declination is East (E), the true
bearing is calculated by adding the declination to the magnetic bearing.
The formula is: True Bearing = Magnetic Bearing + Declination. Here,
True Bearing = $62^{\circ}30' + 4^{\circ}10' = 66^{\circ}40'$.
85. In chain surveying, reciprocal ranging is adopted when the two ends
of chain line are
A. mutually invisible
B. too distant
C. visible
D. separated by a valley
Explanation: Reciprocal ranging is a method used in chain
surveying when the two end stations of a line are mutually invisible due
to an obstacle such as a hill or rising ground. It involves setting up
intermediate points from both ends.
86. The water obtained from the tube well is known as
A. Surface water
B. Ground water
C. Potable water
D. Run off
Explanation: Water obtained from a tube well, which taps into an
underground aquifer, is a type of groundwater.
87. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from
A. Fluid to rotor
B. Rotor to fluid
C. Draft to rotor
D. Rotor to draft
Explanation: In a centrifugal pump, the impeller (rotor) rotates
and imparts kinetic energy to the fluid. The fluid then flows out and
converts this kinetic energy into pressure energy. Thus, energy is
transferred from the rotor to the fluid.
88. Which one of the following is not used to measure the pressure of
liquid?
A. Piezometer
B. Manometer
C. Differential manometer
D. Pycnometer
Explanation: Piezometers, manometers, and
differential manometers are all instruments used to measure the
pressure of fluids. A pycnometer is a device used to determine
the density or specific gravity of a substance, not its pressure.
89. In Manning's formula, the value of Chezy's constant 'C' is
calculated by (Where, m = Hydraulic mean depth N = Manning’s constant)
A. $C=\frac{1}{M}N^{\frac{1}{5}}$
B. $C=\frac{1}{M}N^{\frac{1}{6}}$
C. $C=\frac{1}{N}M^{\frac{1}{6}}$
D. $C=\frac{1}{N}M^{\frac{1}{5}}$
Explanation: According to Manning's formula, the Chezy's constant
(C) is given by the relation $C = \frac{1}{n}R^{1/6}$, where 'n' is
Manning's roughness coefficient and 'R' is the Hydraulic radius. The
option uses 'N' and 'M' in place of 'n' and 'R' respectively. Thus, $C =
\frac{1}{N}M^{1/6}$.
90. The Trapezoidal section of a channel will be most economical, when
its wetted perimeter is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Infinity
Explanation: For a channel section to be hydraulically most
economical (i.e., to carry maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional
area and slope), its wetted perimeter must be a minimum. This
minimises the frictional resistance to flow.
91. Hydraulic Mean Depth (m) is calculated using the formula given.
Where A is area and P is the Wetted Perimeter
A. $\frac{ZA}{P}$
B. $\frac{P}{ZA}$
C. $P/A$
D. $\frac{A}{P}$
Explanation: The Hydraulic Mean Depth (R), also known as the
Hydraulic Radius, is a measure of the efficiency of a channel section in
carrying fluid. It is defined as the ratio of the cross-sectional area
of flow (A) to the wetted perimeter (P). The formula is $R =
\frac{A}{P}$.
92. The range for co-efficient of discharge ($C_{d}$) for a venturimeter
is
A. 0.6 to 0.7
B. 0.7 to 0.8
C. 0.8 to 0.9
D. 0.95 to 0.99
Explanation: The coefficient of discharge ($C_d$) for a
venturimeter is very high, typically ranging from 0.95 to 0.99.
This is because the venturimeter is designed to cause very little head
loss.
93. Co-efficient of contraction $(C_{c})$ is equal to
A. $\frac{a_{c}^{2}}{3a}$
B. $\frac{a_{c}}{a}$
C. $\sqrt{a_{c}\times a}$
D. $a_{c}\times a$
Explanation: The coefficient of contraction ($C_c$) is defined as
the ratio of the area of the fluid jet at the vena contracta ($a_c$) to
the area of the orifice ($a$). The formula is $C_c = \frac{a_c}{a}$.
94. If the cross-sectional area of flow and wetted perimeter of open
channel is 16 $m^{2}$ and 8 m respectively. What is the Hydraulic radius
of open channel?
A. 0.5 m
B. 2 m
C. 128 m
D. 16 m
Explanation: The Hydraulic Radius (R) is calculated as the ratio
of the Area of flow (A) to the Wetted Perimeter (P). Given A = 16 $m^2$
and P = 8 m, then $R = \frac{A}{P} = \frac{16}{8} = 2~m$.
95. The term 'Z' is known as
A. Potential Energy
B. Pressure Energy
C. Potential Energy per unit weight
D. Pressure Energy per unit weight
Explanation: In the Bernoulli's equation, the term 'Z' refers to
the elevation head, which represents the
potential energy per unit weight of the fluid relative to a
datum.
96. For Laminar flow, Reynolds number is
A. < 2000
B. > 4000
C. > 5000
D. > 6000
Explanation: Laminar flow is characterized by fluid
particles moving in smooth, parallel layers without intermixing. This
type of flow occurs at low velocities and is defined by a Reynolds
number ($R_e$) less than 2000. For pipe flow, the transition range is
$R_e = 2000 - 4000$, and for turbulent flow, $R_e > 4000$.
97. The Hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter 160 mm when
running full is
A. 80 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 107 mm
Explanation: For a circular pipe running full, the hydraulic mean
depth (R) is the ratio of the cross-sectional area ($A =
\frac{\pi}{4}D^2$) to the wetted perimeter ($P = \pi D$). So, $R =
\frac{A}{P} = \frac{\frac{\pi}{4}D^2}{\pi D} = \frac{D}{4}$. Given $D =
160~mm$, $R = \frac{160}{4} = 40~mm$.
98. In a laminar flow in pipe, the velocity is maximum at
A. Perimeter
B. Uniform in the section
C. Center
D. $\frac{1}{3}$ of depth
Explanation: In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the
velocity profile is parabolic. The velocity is zero at the pipe walls
(perimeter) and reaches its maximum value at the center of the
pipe.
99. Pitot-tube is used for measurement of
A. Velocity at a point
B. Flow
C. Pressure
D. Discharge
Explanation: A Pitot tube is a device used to measure the
velocity of fluid at a specific point in a flow stream. It does so by
converting the kinetic energy of the flow into potential energy.
100. The force per unit area is called
A. Pressure
B. Strain
C. Surface tension
D. Density
Explanation: Pressure is a measure of the force applied
per unit area. It is typically expressed in units of Pascals (Pa) or
$N/m^2$.
101. One of the major uses of computers in construction project
management is
A. Manual labour estimation
B. Designing and drafting
C. Project scheduling and planning
D. Sand quality testing
Explanation: Computers are widely used in construction management
for complex tasks like project scheduling and planning, which
involves creating and managing project timelines, resource allocation,
and dependencies.
102. MS word is an example of
A. An operating system
B. A processing device
C. Application software
D. An input device
Explanation: MS Word is a type of
application software that is designed for end-users to perform
specific tasks, such as creating and editing documents.
103. Cause for major or great earthquake is due to
A. Poor building construction
B. Heavy floods
C. Weak landform
D. Area in tectonic plate boundary
Explanation: The most significant earthquakes are caused by the
movement and interaction of the Earth's tectonic plates along
their boundaries.
104. Earthquake preparedness can be achieved by
A. Following BIS codes for earthquake design and construction
B. Less storeyed buildings
C. Providing good foundation
D. Use of RCC structures
Explanation: The most effective way to ensure earthquake
preparedness in construction is to adhere to specific design and
construction standards, such as the
BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) codes for earthquake-resistant
design.
105. Which phase of disaster management focuses on restoring normal life
after a disaster?
A. Preparedness
B. Response
C. Recovery
D. Mitigation
Explanation: The recovery phase of disaster management
focuses on rebuilding and restoring infrastructure and services to help
the affected community return to normalcy after a disaster has occurred.
106. Which curve is used for cash flow analysis for owner and
contractor?
A. L curve
B. J curve
C. C curve
D. S curve
Explanation: The S-curve is a graphical representation
used in project management to track cash flow over time. It typically
shows the cumulative cost or resource usage plotted against time,
forming a characteristic "S" shape.
107. Stages of cost control
A. Pre-contract stages and design stages
B. Post contract stages and design stages
C. Pre-contract stages and post contract stages
D. Design stages and execution stages
Explanation: Cost control in a construction project is a
continuous process that involves two main stages: the
pre-contract stage (estimating and bidding) and the
post-contract stage (managing costs during execution).
108. EMD stands for
A. Earliest Money Deposit
B. Earning Money Deposit
C. Earnest Money Deposit
D. Early Monetary Deposit
Explanation: EMD stands for Earnest Money Deposit,
which is a refundable security deposit paid by a bidder to an owner or
developer to show genuine intent to enter into a contract.
109. N.M.R. stands for
A. Nominal Muster Roll
B. Normal Muster Roll
C. Nominal Maintenance Register
D. Normal Maintenance Register
Explanation: N.M.R. stands for Nominal Muster Roll,
a register used in construction and other industries to record the daily
attendance and wages of temporary or casual labourers.
110. Which one is not a type of contract?
A. Lumpsum
B. Total price
C. Cost plus
D. Incentive contract
Explanation: Contract types in construction include
Lump Sum, Cost Plus, and Incentive contracts.
"Total price" is a payment term, not a distinct contract type.
111. In contract document 'Bill of quantities' means
A. Which furnishes the measure of each of the items of work to be done
B. Describes the quality and workmanship
C. Methods of payment and liabilities of parties
D. Billing procedures for different nature of work
Explanation: A Bill of Quantities (BOQ) is a document used
in tendering and contracting that provides a detailed list of all the
materials and labour required for a project, along with their measured
quantities.
112. Which noise level personal protective device required?
A. 0-10 db
B. 10-20 db
C. 20-30 db
D. 30 db and above
Explanation: Prolonged exposure to noise levels of
30 dB and above can cause health problems and is a typical
threshold where personal protective devices, such as earplugs or
earmuffs, are recommended or required in an occupational setting.
113. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without
affecting the start of succeeding activities, is known as
A. Duration
B. Total float
C. Free float
D. Interfering float
Explanation: Free float is the amount of time that an
activity can be delayed without affecting the start time of any
succeeding activity. It is the time available before the early start of
the next activity.
114. The entire construction project work is divided into smaller pieces
of discrete tasks which consume a definite time. The term used to
describe the above is called as
A. Resource
B. Cost
C. Activity
D. Event
Explanation: An activity in a project network is a task or
a discrete unit of work that consumes a specific amount of time and
resources.
115. The amount of time by which the finish of an activity can be
delayed without delaying the earliest starting time for the following
activity
A. Latest start time
B. Free float
C. Slack time
D. Critical path
Explanation: This is the precise definition of Free float.
It is the delay an activity can tolerate without affecting the early
start of its successor.
116. Which of the following rules are applied for determining a critical
activity?
(i) The early start and late start times for an activity
are same.
(ii) The early finish and late finish time for an
activity are same.
(iii) The early start and late starts time need
not be same. (iv) The early finish and late finish time need not be
same.
A. (i), (iii) are correct
B. (i), (ii) are correct
C. (iii), (iv) are correct
D. (i), (ii), (iii) correct
Explanation: A critical activity is one that has zero
float. This means its early start time (ES) is equal to its late start
time (LS), and its early finish time (EF) is equal to its late finish
time (LF). Therefore, both statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
117. A critical activity has
A. Maximum float
B. Minimum float
C. Zero float
D. Average float
Explanation: By definition, a critical activity is a task
on the critical path that has no float, meaning any delay will delay the
entire project. Its float is zero.
118. 'BOT' is a project delivery model adopted for large infrastructure
projects of nation which denotes
A. Build-Operate-Transfer
B. Build-Orient-Transfer
C. Begin-Orient-Transmit
D. Build-Orient-Transport
Explanation: BOT is a common project financing model for
large infrastructure projects. It stands for
Build-Operate-Transfer, where a private company builds, operates,
and then transfers the project to the public sector after a specified
period.
119. The earliest method used for planning of projects was
A. CPM
B. PERT
C. Bar Chart
D. Milestone Chart
Explanation: The Bar Chart, also known as the Gantt chart,
was one of the earliest and simplest project planning tools. It visually
represents the project schedule with bars showing the start and end
dates of activities.
120. Bar charts are suitable only for
A. Small size projects
B. Medium size projects
C. Large size projects
D. No specific project size
Explanation: Bar charts are simple and easy to create and
understand, making them suitable for planning and managing
small-sized projects. For larger, more complex projects,
network-based methods like CPM and PERT are more appropriate as they
show the dependencies between activities.
121. Which will bring down the overall painting cost, reduce the weight
and increase the durability of paints?
A. Solvents
B. Adulterants
C. Pigments
D. Tung oil
Explanation: Adulterants are substances added to paints,
often to reduce cost, improve workability, and sometimes to increase
durability. They are typically inexpensive fillers.
122. The method of covering various components of a building with a
plastic material to form a durable surface
A. Concreting
B. Flooring
C. Plastering
D. Roofing
Explanation: Plastering is the process of applying a
plastic material, such as mortar or cement paste, to a surface to create
a durable finish.
123. Plastic emulsion paint is ______ based wall paint.
A. Water
B. Lime
C. Surkhi
D. Cement
Explanation: Plastic emulsion paints are a type of paint
where pigments are suspended in a polymer emulsion that is diluted with
water as a solvent. They are commonly used for interior walls.
124. For colour washing on new works
A. the primary coat shall be white wash
B. the primary coat shall be colour wash
C. the primary coat shall be painting
D. no primary coat is required
Explanation: When applying color wash on new works, a
primary coat of white wash is typically applied first to provide
a smooth, uniform, and light-colored base for the color wash.
125. A semi-rigid material which forms an excellent impervious layer for
damp proofing is known as
A. Bitumen
B. Tar
C. Aluminal
D. Mastic asphalt
Explanation: Mastic asphalt is a type of semi-rigid
waterproof material that is melted and applied as a continuous,
jointless layer, making it highly effective for damp proofing and
waterproofing basements and roofs.
126. The lowest part of a structure which transmit the load to the soil
known as
A. Super-structure
B. Plinth
C. Foundation
D. Basement
Explanation: The foundation is the lowest part of a
structure that transmits the loads from the building to the underlying
soil or rock.
127. The development of fine hair cracks in plastered surface is called
as
A. Popping
B. Crazing
C. Flaking
D. Blistering
Explanation: Crazing is the formation of a network of
fine, shallow, and interconnected hairline cracks on the surface of
cement plaster or concrete.
128. Match the correct one from the following:
A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
129. The lowest part of the building which is in direct contact with
ground is
A. Building
B. Foundation
C. Super structure
D. Floor level
Explanation: The foundation is the component of a
structure that directly interfaces with the ground, serving to transfer
and distribute the building's loads to the soil below.
130. Which of the following is a key benefit of using fly ash bricks in
construction?
A. High porosity and poor dimensional accuracy
B. High water absorption and reduced strength
C. Utilization of industrial waste and improved thermal insulation
D. Requirement of excessive mortar due to irregular shape
Explanation: Fly ash bricks are a key component of
sustainable construction because they utilize a waste product from power
plants, which helps with waste disposal. They also offer improved
thermal insulation properties compared to traditional clay bricks.
131. Which of the following is considered a key characteristic of green
building materials?
A. High embodied energy and non-recyclability
B. Use of non-renewable resources exclusively
C. Sustainability, low environmental impact and recyclability
D. Expensive and difficult to source materials
Explanation: Green building materials are characterized by
their sustainability, low environmental impact throughout
their lifecycle, and their ability to be recycled or reused.
132. Which of the following is the most appropriate application of
Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)?
A. Construction of runways and airfields requiring quick setting
B. Marine structures and hydraulic structures works exposed to
sulphate attacks
C. Cold weather concreting requiring rapid strength gain
D. Repair works requiring quick setting and high early strength
Explanation: Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC) is highly
resistant to sulfate and chloride attacks. This makes it an ideal choice
for marine and hydraulic structures as it provides better
durability in aggressive environments.
133. What type of admixture is most suitable option in the case of
emergency repair work?
A. Retarders
B. Accelerators
C. Plasticizers
D. Air-entraining agents
Explanation: Accelerators are admixtures used to increase
the rate of hydration and strength development in concrete. This is
particularly useful in emergency repair work where quick setting
and early strength gain are critical.
134. Which one of the following materials is one of the most effective
retarding agents used as admixture?
A. Common sugar
B. Calcium chloride
C. Fly ash
D. Blast furnace slag
Explanation: Common sugar is a highly effective, albeit
potent, retarding agent. It significantly delays the setting time of
concrete and is sometimes used in small quantities in special mixes.
135. Which one of the following factors is not affecting workability in
concrete?
A. type of superplasticizers
B. dosage of superplasticizers
C. water cement ratio
D. volume of the concrete
Explanation: Workability is the ease with which concrete
can be mixed, transported, and placed without segregation. Factors like
the type and dosage of superplasticizers and the water-cement ratio
directly affect workability. The overall
volume of the concrete being placed does not affect the
workability of the mix itself.
136. Match correctly the laboratory tests for cement with corresponding
property.
(a) Vicat Apparatus - 1. Soundness of cement
(b)
Le-chatelier apparatus - 2. Initial setting time of cement
(c)
Slump test - 3. Workability of cement concrete
(d) Fineness test -
4. Mean size of grains of cement
A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
C. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Explanation: (a) Vicat Apparatus is used to determine the
initial and final setting times of cement. This matches option 2.
(b) Le-chatelier apparatus is used to test the soundness of
cement. This matches option 1.
(c) Slump test is used to determine the workability of fresh
cement concrete. This matches option 3.
(d) Fineness test is used to measure the mean size of cement
grains. This matches option 4.
The correct combination is (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4, which corresponds
to option D.
137. The age of a log of timber can be estimated by
A. diameter of pith
B. thickness of bark
C. number of annular ring
D. number of medullary ray
Explanation: The age of a tree, and thus a log of timber, can be
accurately estimated by counting the number of annual rings (also
known as annular rings) in its cross-section. Each ring represents one
year of growth.
138. The method of arranging bricks, such that the individual units are
tied together is called as
A. Closer
B. Bond
C. Horizontal course
D. Vertical course
Explanation: A bond in masonry is the arrangement of
bricks or stones in a wall to ensure that the individual units are tied
together and the load is evenly distributed throughout the wall.
139. No fines concrete is
A. Light weight concrete
B. Heavy weight concrete
C. Fibre reinforced concrete
D. Ferro concrete
Explanation: No-fines concrete is a type of lightweight
concrete that consists of coarse aggregate, cement, and water, with no
fine aggregate (sand) used. This results in a mix with a high void ratio
and a lower density, making it a lightweight concrete.
140. ______ of the following sand type is excellent for use in mortar
and concrete work.
A. Sea sand
B. Clayey sand
C. Pit sand
D. River sand
Explanation: River sand is considered excellent for use in
mortar and concrete because it is typically well-graded and free from
organic impurities, clay, or salt content.
141. The fineness of cement is tested by
A. Air content method
B. Air-permeability method
C. Le-chatelier apparatus
D. Vicat's apparatus
Explanation: The fineness of cement, which refers to the particle
size, is most commonly tested using the Air-permeability method,
which measures the specific surface area of the cement powder.
142. When the concrete is conveyed from the mixer to the point of
placement through pipes, it is called the
A. pipe concrete
B. pumped concrete
C. sprinkling concrete
D. wrapping concrete
Explanation: The process of conveying concrete through pipes
using a pump is known as pumped concrete. This method is
efficient for large-scale concrete placement.
143. Dry rot in timber is caused by
A. Lack of ventilation
B. Lack of light
C. Immersion in water
D. Alternative wet and dry atmosphere
Explanation: Dry rot in timber is a type of decay caused
by a specific fungus (Serpula lacrymans). It occurs in unventilated
conditions where there is no free circulation of air.
144. As per IS: 565, the sieve sets for coarse aggregate ranges from
A. 40 mm to 4.75 mm
B. 20 mm to 4.75 mm
C. 80 mm to 4.75 mm
D. 100 mm to 4.75 mm
Explanation: As per IS: 565 (which is part of the IS code
system), the sieve sizes for grading coarse aggregates typically range
from 80 mm to 4.75 mm.
145. Before testing for setting time of cement, one should test for
A. Soundness
B. Strength
C. Fineness
D. Consistency
Explanation: Before conducting a setting time test on cement, it
is essential to first determine the consistency of the cement
paste. This ensures that the paste has the correct water-cement ratio
for the test.
146. CMDA Form - 'A' is used for
A. All types of development
B. Only building plan approval
C. Sub division or layout of land
D. Renew of expired permission
Explanation: CMDA Form 'A' is specifically used for
submitting a single building plan for approval in the Chennai
Metropolitan Area. Other forms are used for different types of
development.
147. Approximate cost of the sanitary arrangements in calculating
estimated cost of the building is
A. 2 to 3%
B. 4 to 5%
C. 1 to 2%
D. 3 to 4%
Explanation: The approximate cost of sanitary arrangements,
including plumbing and fixtures, is typically estimated at
4 to 5% of the total estimated building cost.
148. The technique of finding the fair price of an existing building or
property is known as
A. Estimation
B. Valuation
C. Pricing
D. Costing
Explanation: Valuation is the systematic process of
determining the fair market price or value of a property, building, or
asset. It considers factors like condition, age, and location.
149. An old building has been purchased at a cost of Rs. 22,000/-.
Assuming the future life of the building as 15 years. The amount of
annual installment of sinking fund at 4% compound interest is
A. Rs. 1,100
B. Rs. 6,100
C. Rs. 3,000
D. Rs. 500
Explanation: The annual installment of the sinking fund (S) is
calculated using the formula: $S = \frac{Si}{(1+i)^n - 1}$, where S is
the total fund required, i is the annual interest rate, and n is the
number of years. Here, S = Rs. 22,000, i = 0.04, n = 15. The calculation
is $S = \frac{22000 \times 0.04}{(1+0.04)^{15} - 1} = \frac{880}{1.8009
- 1} = \frac{880}{0.8009} \approx 1098.74$, which is approximately
Rs. 1,100.
150. Special repair estimate is prepared for
A. Maintenance of a building
B. Additional works not in approval
C. Renovation of a structure
D. Preparing revised estimate
Explanation: A special repair estimate is prepared for
major repair or renovation work on a structure, such as replacing
a roof or a major structural component.
151. 1 square meter is equal to ______ square feet.
A. 35.31
B. 10.67
C. 10.76
D. 35.13
Explanation: The conversion factor from square meters to square
feet is 10.7639. Therefore, 1 square meter is approximately equal
to 10.76 square feet.
152. Calculate the cost of brickwork of 3.6 cu.m and the rate of brick
work is Rs. 320.00 per cu.m
A. Rs. 1150
B. Rs. 1155
C. Rs. 1152
D. Rs. 1160
Explanation: The total cost is calculated by multiplying the
volume of work by the rate per unit volume. Cost = $3.6~m^3 \times Rs.
320/m^3$ = Rs. 1152.
153. Work out the volume of earthwork W road embankment for the given
area 50 m² and the length as 100 m.
A. $4000~m^{3}$
B. $5500~m^{3}$
C. $5000~m^{3}$
D. $6000~m^{3}$
Explanation: The volume of earthwork is calculated by multiplying
the cross-sectional area by the length. Volume = Area $\times$ Length =
$50~m^2 \times 100~m$ = 5000 $m^3$.
154. What is the amount of sand required for 1 $m^{3}$ of cement
concrete with 1: 1.5: 3 ratio using 20 mm aggregate?
A. $0.856~m^{3}$
B. $0.428~m^{3}$
C. $0.285~m^{3}$
D. $0.328~m^{3}$
Explanation: For 1 $m^3$ of finished wet concrete, the dry volume
is approximately 1.54 $m^3$. The ratio is 1 (cement) : 1.5 (sand) : 3
(aggregate). The sum of ratios is $1 + 1.5 + 3 = 5.5$. The volume of
sand is the sand ratio divided by the sum of ratios, multiplied by the
dry volume. Sand required = $(\frac{1.5}{5.5}) \times 1.54 = 0.42~m^3$.
The closest answer is 0.428 $m^3$.
155. The rent which can be lawfully charged on a tenant is known as
A. Lease rent
B. Monopoly rent
C. Nominal rent
D. Standard rent
Explanation: Standard rent is the legally defined maximum
rent that a landlord can charge a tenant for a property.
156. Fine aggregate (sand) required for 1 $m^{3}$ of CC 1: 1.5: 3 is
A. $0.50~m^{3}$
B. $0.45~m^{3}$
C. $0.75~m^{3}$
D. $1.00~m^{3}$
Explanation: The volume of sand required for 1 $m^3$ of 1:1.5:3
concrete is calculated as follows: The dry volume of materials needed
for 1 $m^3$ of wet concrete is approximately 1.54 $m^3$. The sum of the
ratios is $1+1.5+3 = 5.5$. The volume of sand required =
$\frac{1.5}{5.5} \times 1.54 = 0.42~m^3$. The provided option of
0.45 $m^3$ is the closest approximation. Note that this
calculation is identical to question 154.
157. ______ is the value at the end of utility period without being
dismantled.
A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Gross income
Explanation: Salvage value is the estimated value of an
asset at the end of its useful life, assuming it is not dismantled and
can be sold or reused in its current form.
158. The quantity of foundation concrete is measured in terms of
A. m
B. $m^{2}$
C. $m^{3}$
D. mm
Explanation: Concrete work, including the foundation, is a
three-dimensional quantity. Therefore, it is measured in cubic meters
($m^3$).
159. The degree of accuracy is the computation of areas of quantities.
A. $0.001~m^{2}$
B. $0.01~m^{2}$
C. $0.10~m^{2}$
D. $0.01~m^{3}$
Explanation: In detailed estimation, the area of quantities is
computed to an accuracy of 0.01 $m^2$.
160. The area measured correct to the nearest
A. 0.01 sq.m
B. 0.01 sq.cm
C. 0.01 sq.mm
D. 0.02 sq.m
Explanation: In the measurement of quantities for estimation,
areas are typically measured correct to the nearest 0.01 sq.m.
161. A semicircular wall of height 3.0 m is provided with radius
(internal) 6.9 m. Thickness of wall is 200 mm. Determine the quantity of
brickwork required in $m^{3}$.
A. $66~m^{3}$
B. $132~m^{3}$
C. $26.4~m^{3}$
D. $13.2~m^{3}$
Explanation: To find the volume of the brickwork, we calculate
the average radius, then use the formula for a half-cylinder. The inner
radius is 6.9 m, and the outer radius is $6.9 + 0.2 = 7.1~m$. The
average radius is $(6.9 + 7.1)/2 = 7.0~m$. The length of the wall is
half the circumference of the circle, which is $\pi \times r_{avg} =
3.14 \times 7.0 = 21.98~m$. The volume of brickwork is length $\times$
thickness $\times$ height = $21.98~m \times 0.2~m \times 3.0~m =
13.188~m^3$. The closest value is 13.2 $m^3$.
162. Honey comb brickwork is measured in
A. sq.mm
B. sq.cm
C. sq.m
D. cu.m
Explanation: Honeycomb brickwork, also known as rat-trap bond, is
a type of brickwork with open spaces. As it is not a solid volume, it is
measured in terms of area, in square meters (sq.m).
163. In the detailed estimate the volumes are worked out to the nearest
A. $0.001~m^{3}$
B. $0.005~m^{3}$
C. $0.01~m^{3}$
D. $0.05~m^{3}$
Explanation: In a detailed estimate, volumes of materials are
calculated to a high degree of precision, typically to the nearest
0.01 $m^3$.
164. The quantity of partition walls and honey comb walls are worked out
in
A. m
B. $m^{2}$
C. $m^{3}$
D. $m^{4}$
Explanation: Both partition walls and honeycomb walls are
measured in terms of area, as their volume is not solid. Therefore, they
are calculated in square meters ($m^{2}$).
165. What is the unit of measurement of lime or cement concrete in
foundation?
A. sq. m
B. cu.m
C. r.m
D. quintal
Explanation: Concrete work in foundations is a volumetric
quantity, meaning it is measured by its volume. The standard unit of
measurement is cubic meters (cu.m).
166. A city with a population of 2 lakhs has to be supplied with water
at 180 litres per person per day. Its average daily water supply will be
A. 18 million litres
B. 36 million litres
C. 1.8 million litres
D. 3.6 million litres
Explanation: To calculate the total daily water supply, multiply
the population by the per capita water demand. Population = 2 lakhs = $2
\times 10^5$. Water demand = 180 litres/person/day. Total daily demand =
$2 \times 10^5 \times 180 = 36 \times 10^6$ litres =
36 million litres.
167. The colour of water can be determined by an instrument known as
A. Turbidimeter
B. Dionic water tester
C. Thermometer
D. Tintometer
Explanation: A Tintometer is an instrument used to measure
the color of a substance, including water, by comparing it to a set of
standardized color scales.
168. The maximum permissible turbidity for domestic supplies on silica
scale is
A. 5 to 10 ppm
B. 10 to 20 ppm
C. 20 to 30 ppm
D. 30 to 40 ppm
Explanation: According to standards, the maximum permissible
turbidity for domestic water supplies on the silica scale is
5 to 10 ppm.
169. In water distribution system, the main pipes are laid under roads
with a minimum earth filling of
A. 500 mm
B. 750 mm
C. 900 mm
D. 1000 mm
Explanation: Water mains laid under roads require a minimum depth
of cover to protect them from traffic loads and other surface
disturbances. The standard minimum depth of earth filling is
900 mm from the top of the pipe to the ground surface.
170. Process of applying chlorine to the water before filtration is
called
A. post-chlorination
B. pre-chlorination
C. double chlorination
D. break-point chlorination
Explanation: Pre-chlorination is the process of adding
chlorine to raw water before it enters the filtration unit. This helps
to reduce the bacterial load and algae, and assists in coagulation.
171. Which method of distribution can be adopted for cities which are
situated at the foot-hills and the source of supply is available
somewhere in the hills at sufficient elevation in relation to the
elevation of the city?
A. Gravitational system
B. Pumping system
C. Combined gravity and pumping system
D. Pumping with storage system
Explanation: When the water source is located at a higher
elevation than the city it supplies, water can be distributed using a
gravitational system. This method uses the natural force of
gravity to transport water, eliminating the need for pumps and reducing
operational costs.
172. Choose the right matches among the following (1) Residual Chlorine
(2) Suspended solid concentration (3) Hardness of water (4) Coagulant
dose
A. 1 and 3 are correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 2 and 3 are correct
D. 3 and 4 are correct
Explanation: Orthotolidine Test is used to measure the
residual chlorine in water.
BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) Test measures the amount of
oxygen consumed by microorganisms to decompose organic matter, not
suspended solids.
EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) titration is a common
method for determining the hardness of water.
MPN (Most Probable Number) is a method used for the
bacteriological analysis of water to estimate the concentration of
coliform bacteria, not coagulant dose. Therefore, the correct matches
are 1 and 3.
173. In which system of water supply, water is supplied only during
fixed hours of the day?
A. Gravity system
B. Pumping system
C. Continuous system
D. Intermittent system
Explanation: An intermittent system of water supply
delivers water for a limited duration each day, not continuously. This
system is often implemented in areas with water shortages.
174. To remove temporary hardness of water ______ is used.
A. $MgCl_{2}$
B. $CaCl_{2}$
C. $Ca(OH)_{2}$
D. $Mg(HCO_{3})_{2}$
Explanation: Temporary hardness in water, caused by carbonates
and bicarbonates, can be removed by adding slaked lime, or
Calcium Hydroxide ($Ca(OH)_{2}$), in a process known as the
Lime-Soda process.
175. The most suitable formula for calculating the quantity of storm
water for conditions prevailing in South India is
A. Dicken's formula
B. Ryve's formula
C. Inglis's formula
D. Fanning's formula
Explanation: Ryve's formula is an empirical formula for
calculating the quantity of storm water runoff, and it is considered the
most suitable for the conditions prevalent in South India.
176. The total storage capacity of a distribution reservoir is the
summation of
A. Balancing storage and breakdown storage
B. Balancing storage and fire storage
C. Balancing storage, fire storage and breakdown storage
D. Breakdown storage and fire storage
Explanation: The total storage capacity of a distribution
reservoir is the sum of three types of storage:
balancing storage (to meet fluctuating demand),
fire storage (for emergency fire-fighting needs), and
breakdown storage (to cover for pump or power failures).
177. If $M=$ Area in $km^2$ and 'C' is a constant, Dicken's formula for
calculating the quantity of storm water (Q) is
A. $Q=14~CM^{3/4}$
B. $Q=14~CM^{4/3}$
C. $Q=15~CM^{3/4}$
D. $Q=15~CM^{4/3}$
Explanation: Dicken's formula is an empirical formula used to
calculate the peak flood discharge from a catchment area. It is given by
$Q = CM^{3/4}$, where C is Dicken's constant. The specific coefficient
of 14 is often used, thus the formula is $Q=14~CM^{3/4}$.
178. Which units involved in preliminary treatment of sewage for
grinding or chopping large size suspended solids?
A. Grit chamber
B. Comminutors
C. Pumping
D. Skimming tanks
Explanation: Comminutors are mechanical devices used in
the preliminary treatment of sewage to grind or chop large solids into
smaller, more manageable particles before they enter subsequent
treatment stages.
179. What are the structures that are constructed at suitable interval
along the sewerage system to facilitate their operation, maintenance and
inspection called?
A. Septic tanks
B. Sludge tanks
C. Sedimentation tanks
D. Sewer appurtenances
Explanation: Sewer appurtenances are structures built
along a sewerage system at regular intervals to provide access for
inspection, cleaning, and maintenance, such as manholes, drop manholes,
and flushing tanks.
180. The sewage should be discharged deep into the sea, preferably, from
which distance away from the shore
A. 1 to 1.5 km
B. 2 to 2.5 km
C. 3 to 3.5 km
D. 4 to 4.5 km
Explanation: For safe disposal of sewage into the sea, it should
be discharged far enough from the shore to allow for adequate dilution
and dispersion. A distance of 3 to 3.5 km is generally considered
a safe minimum.
181. The ratio between length of the sewer and velocity of flow when
running full is known as
A. Inlet time
B. Time of flow
C. Time of concentration
D. Time intensity
Explanation: The time of flow is defined as the time taken
for sewage to travel from one point to another in a sewer. It is
calculated by dividing the length of the sewer by the velocity of flow.
182. Collection materials used in packed scrubbers are
A. Broken stone and fibre glass
B. Paper
C. Waste cloth
D. Dust
Explanation: Packed scrubbers are air pollution control
devices. They use a packing material to increase the surface area for
the interaction of gas and liquid. Common packing materials include
broken stone and fiberglass.
183. Fog refers to visible aerosols in which dispersed phase has size of
particles ranger from
A. 0.6 to 0.1 µ
B. 1.0 to 40 µ
C. 40 to 50 µ
D. 0.01 to 0.05 µ
Explanation: Fog is a type of aerosol, which is a suspension of
fine solid particles or liquid droplets in the air. The particle size of
the dispersed phase in fog typically ranges from 1.0 to 40 µ.
184. Which of the following is a air pollution control equipment?
A. Electrostatic Precipitator
B. Stack
C. Blower
D. Trickling Filter
Explanation: An Electrostatic Precipitator is a device
used to remove fine solid particles, such as dust and smoke, from a
flowing gas using the force of an induced electrostatic charge. It is a
key piece of equipment for controlling air pollution.
185. Which of the following is not a solid waste disposal method?
A. Land filling
B. Incineration
C. Composting
D. Vaccum floatation
Explanation: Landfilling, incineration, and
composting are all common methods for the disposal and management
of solid waste. Vacuum flotation is a process used in wastewater
treatment, not for solid waste disposal.
186. Case of a rectangular section $d\times b$ is a rhombus whose
diagonals are equal to
A. $\frac{d}{3}, \frac{b}{3}$
B. $\frac{d}{2}, \frac{b}{2}$
C. $d, b$
D. $\frac{d}{6}, \frac{b}{6}$
Explanation: The middle-third rule for a rectangular section
states that to avoid tensile stress, the eccentric load must fall within
a core, which is a rhombus with diagonals of $d/3$ and $b/3$.
187. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column
of length 'l' hinged at both end is
A. $\frac{\pi^{2}EI}{l^{2}}$
B. $\frac{\pi^{2}EI}{4l^{2}}$
C. $\frac{4\pi^{2}EI}{l^{2}}$
D. $\frac{2\pi^{2}EI}{l^{2}}$
Explanation: According to Euler's formula for columns, the
crippling load ($P_{cr}$) for a column with both ends hinged is given by
the formula $P_{cr} = \frac{\pi^2EI}{L_{e}^2}$. For a column hinged at
both ends, the effective length ($L_e$) is equal to the actual length
($l$). Therefore, $P_{cr} = \frac{\pi^2EI}{l^2}$.
188. The inclined member carrying compressive load is
A. Post
B. Beam
C. Strut
D. Column
Explanation: A strut is a structural member that is
subjected to an axial compressive force. It can be oriented in any
direction, including inclined, unlike a column which is typically
vertical.
189. For no tension in the section, the eccentricity must not exceed.
Where, k = Radius of gyration and d = depth of the section
A. $\frac{3k^{2}}{2d}$
B. $\frac{3k^{2}}{4d}$
C. $\frac{2k^{2}}{d}$
D. $\frac{2k^{2}}{d^{2}}$
190. Determine the maximum stress induced in the column having stress
due to direct stress as $60~N/mm^{2}$ and bending stress as
$100~N/mm^{2}$
A. $40~N/mm^{2}$
B. $60~N/mm^{2}$
C. $100~N/mm^{2}$
D. $160~N/mm^{2}$
Explanation: The maximum stress ($\sigma_{max}$) in a column
subjected to both direct and bending stress is the sum of the direct
stress ($\sigma_{d}$) and the bending stress ($\sigma_{b}$). Therefore,
$\sigma_{max} = \sigma_{d} + \sigma_{b} = 60 + 100 = 160~N/mm^{2}$.
191. How much load a long column can carry with fixed ends compared to
both ends hinged
A. 4 times
B. 8 times
C. 16 times
D. 2 times
Explanation: According to Euler's formula, the crippling load is
inversely proportional to the square of the effective length. The
effective length of a column with fixed ends is $L_{e} = l/2$. The
effective length of a column with hinged ends is $L_{e} = l$. The ratio
of the crippling loads is $P_{fixed}/P_{hinged} =
(\frac{\pi^2EI}{(l/2)^2})/(\frac{\pi^2EI}{l^2}) = l^2/(l^2/4) = 4$.
Thus, a column with fixed ends can carry 4 times the load of a
column with hinged ends.
192. The effective length of a column with one end hinged and the other
end free is
A. L
B. 2 L
C. 0.7 L
D. 0.5 L
Explanation: For a column with one end hinged and the other end
free, the effective length ($L_e$) is taken as 2L, where L is the
actual length of the column.
193. The carry-over factor in a prismatic member whose far-end is fixed
is
Explanation: In moment distribution method, the
carry-over factor is the ratio of the moment at the far end to
the moment applied at the near end. For a prismatic member with the far
end fixed, the carry-over factor is 0.5.
194. A propped cantilever of span L' is subjected to a moment '+M'
(sagging) at the propped end, the Fixed End Moment (FEM) at the fixed
end will be
A. M
B. - M
C. $\frac{-M}{2}$
D. $\frac{M}{2}$
Explanation: For a propped cantilever, if a moment $M_B$ is
applied at the propped end B, a moment of $M_A = M_B / 2$ is carried
over to the fixed end A. If the moment is positive (sagging), the
carried-over moment is also positive. So, the FEM at the fixed end will
be $M/2$.
195. What is the degree of indeterminacy of the following fixed beam
with inclined load?
Explanation: The degree of static indeterminacy ($D_s$) for a
beam is given by $D_s = R - 3$, where R is the number of unknown
reactions and 3 is the number of equilibrium equations. For a fixed
beam, there are 3 reactions at each end (one vertical, one horizontal,
and one moment), so R = 6. Thus, $D_s = 6 - 3 = 3$. The inclined load
can be resolved into vertical and horizontal components, but this does
not change the number of unknown reactions. Therefore, the degree of
indeterminacy is 3.
196. Degree of indeterminacy of a propped cantilever is
Explanation: A cantilever beam is statically determinate. A
propped cantilever has one extra support (the prop) compared to a simple
cantilever, which provides one additional vertical reaction. Therefore,
the degree of static indeterminacy is 1.
197. The deflection at the centre of a simply supported beam carrying a
point load at the centre is given by
A. $\frac{WL^{2}}{48EI}$
B. $\frac{WL^{3}}{48EI}$
C. $\frac{WL^{2}}{24EI}$
D. $\frac{WL^{3}}{24EI}$
Explanation: The maximum deflection for a simply supported beam
with a central point load is given by the formula $\delta_{max} =
\frac{WL^3}{48EI}$, where W is the point load, L is the span, E is the
Young's modulus, and I is the moment of inertia.
198. Rankine's formula is applicable for
A. Only short column
B. Only long column
C. Both short and long column
D. Only intermediate column
Explanation: Rankine's formula (or the Rankine-Gordon
formula) is an empirical formula that is a hybrid of Euler's formula and
a formula for short columns. It is designed to be applicable to columns
of all lengths: short, intermediate, and long.
199. In the cantilever beam, deflection at point 'B' is
A. $\frac{Wl^{3}}{8EI}$
B. $\frac{Wl^{3}}{3EI}$
C. $\frac{Wl^{2}}{8EI}$
D. $\frac{Wl^{2}}{3EI}$
Explanation: For a cantilever beam with a point load 'W' at the
free end, the deflection at the free end (point B) is given by the
formula $\delta_B = \frac{WL^3}{3EI}$, where L is the length of the
beam.
200. In simply supported beam with a uniformly distributed load,
throughout the span the maximum deflection occurs at
A. One third of the span
B. At the supports
C. At mid span
D. At quarter span
Explanation: For a simply supported beam subjected to a uniformly
distributed load (UDL) over its entire span, the bending moment is
maximum at the center, and the deflection is also maximum at the
mid-span.
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