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Showing posts with label Code 490. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Code 490. Show all posts

TNPSC Surveyor and Draughtsman (Civil) Code 490: Complete Syllabus & Exam Strategy 2026

TNPSC Surveyor and Draughtsman (Civil) Code 490: Complete Syllabus & Exam Strategy 2026

Are you targeting the highly competitive TNPSC Surveyor and Draughtsman (Civil) positions in 2026? If so, mastering the specific syllabus for Subject Code 490 is the ultimate key to securing your state government job.

At Mahesh IES Academy, Chennai's premier coaching center for Civil Engineers, we have analyzed the TNPSC trends to bring you the most accurate breakdown of the Code 490 syllabus and exam pattern.

TNPSC Code 490 Exam Pattern Overview

The TNPSC Surveyor and Draughtsman exam is divided into two papers. Here is exactly what you need to prepare for:

Paper I: General Studies & Tamil Eligibility (Code 501)

  • Part A: Tamil Eligibility Test (SSLC Standard) - 100 Questions / 150 Marks (Qualifying in nature).
  • Part B: General Studies (ITI Standard) & Aptitude/Mental Ability (SSLC Standard) - 100 Questions / 150 Marks.
  • Duration: 3 Hours (for both Part A and B combined)

Paper II: Subject Paper (Code 490)

  • Standard: ITI Standard
  • Questions: 200 Objective Type Questions
  • Marks: 300 Marks
  • Duration: 3 Hours
  • Focus: Purely core Civil Engineering, Surveying, and Draughtsman concepts.

Detailed Syllabus Breakdown: Trade Code 490

To score maximum marks in Paper II, aspirants must thoroughly prepare the following 10 core units. (Note: Unit-wise distribution of questions is indicative).

Unit I: Basic Engineering Drawing (25 Questions) Role of Surveyor cum Assistant Draughtsman, Layout of drawing sheets, Title block, Drawing instruments and materials (IS 962), Folding of drawing sheets, Scales, and Methods of Dimensioning.

Unit II: Basic Surveying (25 Questions) Principles of chain survey, Testing of metric chain (20m/30m), Measurement of distance, Ranging, Chaining on sloping ground, Offsetting, Obstacles in chain surveying, Instruments for setting out right angles (cross staff, optical square), Triangulation survey, Calculation of area, and Plane tabling.

Unit III: Levelling (20 Questions) Instruments used for levelling (tilting level, auto level, dumpy level), Classification of levelling staff, and Types of levelling (simple, differential, reducing levels).

Unit IV: Compass Surveying & Theodolite (25 Questions) Parts of instruments in compass survey (Prismatic and Surveyor's compass), Determining bearings and calculating included angles for triangular and pentagonal plots, Theodolite geometry, parts, and adjustments.

Unit V: Road Engineering (10 Questions) Technical terms in road engineering, Principles of road alignment, and Classification of roads.

Unit VI: Total Station (25 Questions) Introduction, parts, types, and features of Total Station, Measurement procedures, and Open/Closed Traverse (EDM, 3D Coordinates).

Unit VII: GPS (Global Positioning System) (20 Questions) GPS coordinate systems, Components of GPS receivers, GPS segments, and Principles of operation and surveying with GPS.

Unit VIII: Construction Material & Practice (20 Questions) R.C.C. (Reinforced Cement Concrete) materials, advantages, grades, reinforcement, and quantities. Types and purposes of Foundations.

Unit IX: Auto-CAD (20 Questions) Introduction to CAD, Draw toolbar, Layers (dimensioning and object snap), Modifying toolbar, and Printing CAD drawings.

Unit X: Building Drawing (10 Questions) Plan, Section and Elevation of buildings, Layout plan, Site plan, Key plan, Topo plan, Master plan, and Area Calculation.


How to Prepare for Code 490 in 2026

  1. Master the Basics: Since Paper II is ITI standard, the questions will test your fundamental understanding rather than complex derivations. Focus heavily on definitions, instrumental least counts, and direct formulas.
  2. Practice Previous Year Questions (PYQs): TNPSC repeats a significant percentage of questions. Solving our Chapter-wise PYQs E-Booklet 2026 is mandatory for top ranks.
  3. Don't Ignore General Studies: Many students fail because they ignore Paper I. Give equal weightage to Mental Ability and Tamil Eligibility.

Ready to Start Your Preparation?

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Surveyor Cum Assistant Draughtsman (Code 490) - Online Test Series

This test series is carefully designed to help aspirants master the entire syllabus through a structured series of Topicwise Tests, Unitwise Grand Tests, and Mock Tests. Refer to the provided eNotes, unitwise pyqs ebooklet and Quick Revision Charts for effective preparation.



📊 Unit-wise Distribution of Questions (For Reference)

Unit No. Unit Name No. of Questions
Unit I Basic Engineering Drawing 30
Unit II Basic Surveying 25
Unit III Levelling 20
Unit IV Compass Surveying & Theodolite 25
Unit V Road Engineering 15
Unit VI Total Station 25
Unit VII GPS (Global Positioning System) 10
Unit VIII Construction Material & Practice 15
Unit IX Auto-CAD 25
Unit X Building Drawing 10


Test Series Schedule

📘 A. Topicwise Tests Schedule

Each test is focused on a specific topic. Attempt after preparing from the corresponding eNote.

  • 1.1 Role of Surveyor cum Assistant Draughtsman
  • 1.2 Layout of drawing sheets and title block
  • 1.3 List of drawing instruments, equipments and materials to be used for Drawing
  • 1.4 Layout of drawing Sheet
  • 1.5 Folding of drawing Sheet
  • 1.6 Scales & Dimensioning
  • 2.1 Introduction - Principles of chain survey and instrument employed
  • 2.2 Testing of metric chain (20m/30m)
  • 2.3 Measurement of distance by chain and chaining
  • 2.4 Ranging
  • 2.5 Chaining on sloping ground
  • 2.6 Offset and Offsetting
  • 2.7 Obstacles in chain surveying
  • 2.8 Instruments used for setting out right angles
  • 2.9 Triangulation survey
  • 2.10 Calculation of area
  • 2.11 Setting up of plane table and methods of plane tabling
  • 3.1 Instruments Used for Levelling
  • 3.2 Types of Levelling
  • 4.1 Identification and the parts of instruments in compass survey
  • 4.2 Determining the bearing of a given triangular plot of ABC and calculation of included angles
  • 4.4 Theodolite
  • 5.1 Technical term used in road engineering
  • 5.2 Principle of road alignment
  • 5.3 Classification of roads
  • 6.1 Introduction to total station
  • 6.2 Types of total station
  • 6.3 Measurement with total station
  • 6.4 Open and Closed Traverse
  • 7.1 GPS coordinate system and component of GPS System & segment
  • 7.2 Principle of Operation of GPS and surveying with GPS
  • 8.1 R.C.C. (Reinforced Cement Concrete)
  • 8.2 Foundation
  • 9.1 Introduction to CAD
  • 9.2 Draw tool bar
  • 9.3 Layers
  • 9.4 Modifying tool bar
  • 9.5 Printing CAD drawing
  • 10.1 Plan, Section and Elevation of buildings, Layout plan, Site plan, Key plan, Topo plan, Master plan

🕒 Duration: 30–45 mins
📊 Question Count: 20–30 questions per test



🧪 B. Unitwise Grand Tests

Each grand test contains 100 questions from one complete unit. Ideal for revision after completing topicwise tests.

  • GT-01 Basic Engineering Drawing
  • GT-02 Basic Surveying
  • GT-03 Levelling
  • GT-04 Compass Surveying & Theodolite
  • GT-05 Road Engineering
  • GT-06 Total Station
  • GT-07 GPS (Global Positioning System)
  • GT-08 Construction Material & Practice
  • GT-09 AutoCAD
  • GT-10 Building Drawing

🕐 Duration: 90 minutes
📌 Tip: Revise using Quick Revision Charts before attempting these tests.



🧠 C. Mock Tests – Full Syllabus Practice

These mock tests simulate the actual exam environment. Attempt them only after all unitwise tests are completed.

  • SAD490 MT-01
  • SAD490 MT-02
  • SAD490 MT-03
  • SAD490 MT-04
  • SAD490 MT-05

⏳ Duration: 3 Hours
📋 Question Count: 200 Questions per test

📲 Stay Updated: Visit our mobile app regularly for mock test schedule announcements.



✅ Final Preparation Tips

  • Use eNotes to prepare for each topicwise test.
  • Revise key points using Quick Revision Charts.
  • Analyze your mistakes and revise weak areas before final mocks.
  • Maintain accuracy, speed, and consistency in all tests.


📞 For guidance, contact Mahesh IES Academy
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🔗 Join our Telegram for all updates: https://t.me/maheshiesacademy

TNPSC Code 490 (SAD): Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC) Important MCQs

1. What is the main difference between Plain Cement Concrete (PCC) and Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC)?
(a) PCC includes steel reinforcement, while RCC does not
(b) RCC includes steel reinforcement, while PCC does not
(c) Both PCC and RCC include steel reinforcement
(d) PCC is stronger in tension than RCC


2. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of reinforced concrete?
(a) Easily cast in any desired size and shape
(b) Strength of concrete increases with age
(c) High maintenance cost
(d) Good weather and fire resistance


3. Why is steel used in Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC)?
(a) Steel is stronger in compression
(b) Steel is stronger in tension
(c) Steel prevents cracks in concrete
(d) Steel reacts chemically with cement to form a stronger bond


4. Which of the following structures commonly use RCC?
(a) Bridges and dams
(b) Wooden houses
(c) Plastic structures
(d) All of the above


5. What is a disadvantage of reinforced concrete?
(a) Cannot be easily dismantled and reused
(b) Requires no centering or curing
(c) Lightweight structure
(d) Easily used in trusses


6. Which of the following is an application of Plain Cement Concrete (PCC)?
(a) Foundation bases
(b) Structural beams
(c) Multi-story columns
(d) Bridges


7. What property of concrete improves over time?
(a) Weight
(b) Strength
(c) Flexibility
(d) Permeability


8. Why is reinforced concrete preferred for structural applications?
(a) It is stronger in compression and tension
(b) It is easy to construct without curing
(c) It is very light in weight
(d) It cannot be used in buildings


9. What is the main reason for using different grades of concrete?
(a) To control the color of concrete
(b) To provide the required strength
(c) To reduce cost
(d) To increase permeability


10. Which of the following is NOT a common material in PCC?
(a) Cement
(b) Fine aggregate
(c) Coarse aggregate
(d) Steel


11. What is the primary composition of Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?
(a) Lime, silica, alumina, and iron oxide
(b) Fly ash and OPC clinkers
(c) High dicalcium silicate and reduced lime
(d) Cement clinkers and hydrophobic agents


12. Which type of cement is best suited for marine structures and chemical plants?
(a) Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)
(b) Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)
(c) Rapid Hardening Cement
(d) White Cement


13. Which type of cement has a low heat of hydration and is used for mass concreting works like dams?
(a) Rapid Hardening Cement
(b) Low Heat Cement
(c) White Cement
(d) Sulphate Resistant Cement


14. Which type of cement is water-repellent and suitable for long-term storage in humid conditions?
(a) Hydrophobic Cement
(b) Air Entraining Cement
(c) Sulphate Resistant Cement
(d) Colour Cement


15. What is the compressive strength of 33 Grade Portland Cement after 28 days?
(a) 33 N/mm²
(b) 43 N/mm²
(c) 53 N/mm²
(d) 53 S N/mm²


16. Which type of cement is used for decorative works like tile laying and marble works?
(a) Sulphate Resistant Cement
(b) White Cement
(c) Low Heat Cement
(d) Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement


17. What is the main application of Rapid Hardening Cement?
(a) Decorative works
(b) Mass concreting
(c) Repair works in bridges and roads
(d) Marine structures


18. Which cement is designed to resist sulphate attacks in structures?
(a) Portland Pozzolana Cement
(b) Sulphate Resistant Cement
(c) Hydrophobic Cement
(d) Ordinary Portland Cement


19. What is the main purpose of Air Entraining Cement?
(a) To improve aesthetic quality
(b) To improve workability and weather resistance
(c) To reduce heat of hydration
(d) To resist sulphate attacks


20. What does the “S” stand for in 53 S Grade Portland Cement?
(a) Standard
(b) Sulphate Resistant
(c) Strength
(d) Sleeper


21. Which type of cement is most suitable for construction in sulphate-prone soils or water?
(a) Hydrophobic Cement
(b) Sulphate Resistant Cement
(c) Air Entraining Cement
(d) Low Heat Cement


22. What property of Rapid Hardening Cement makes it suitable for emergency structures?
(a) Low heat of hydration
(b) Strength development in 24 hours
(c) Resistance to sulphate attacks
(d) Water-repellent properties


23. What is the primary advantage of using Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement in construction?
(a) High resistance to fire
(b) Low heat of hydration
(c) Water-tightness and workability
(d) Quick setting time


24. Which cement is specifically designed to improve the aesthetic appearance of structures?
(a) White Cement
(b) Sulphate Resistant Cement
(c) Hydrophobic Cement
(d) Portland Pozzolana Cement


25. What is the typical composition of Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)?
(a) 100% OPC clinkers
(b) 30% pozzolanic material and 70% OPC clinkers
(c) 50% OPC clinkers and 50% blast furnace slag
(d) 65% OPC clinkers and 35% blast furnace slag


26. Which of the following is a property of Hydrophobic Cement?
(a) Entrains air bubbles to improve insulation
(b) Resists moisture and is suitable for storage in humid conditions
(c) Develops strength in 24 hours
(d) Generates low heat during hydration


27. What is the fineness of Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?
(a) 225 m²/kg
(b) 325 m²/kg
(c) 400 m²/kg
(d) 500 m²/kg


28. Which type of cement contains air-entraining agents like natural resins and oils?
(a) Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement
(b) Air Entraining Cement
(c) Rapid Hardening Cement
(d) Sulphate Resistant Cement


29. Why is Low Heat Cement used in mass concreting works like dams?
(a) It develops strength rapidly
(b) It generates minimal heat during hydration
(c) It has high sulphate resistance
(d) It improves aesthetic appearance


30. Which grade of Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) is most commonly used for high-strength applications?
(a) 33 Grade
(b) 43 Grade
(c) 53 Grade
(d) 53 S Grade


31. Which type of steel is mentioned under IS 456:2000?
(a) Mild steel and medium tensile steel
(b) High strength deformed steel bars
(c) Hard drawn steel wire fabric
(d) All of the above


32. What is the grade designation for Mild Steel according to IS 456:2000?
(a) Fe 350
(b) Fe 415
(c) Fe 250
(d) Fe 500


33. What does the 'D' in Fe 500 D stand for in high yield strength deformed bars?
(a) Durability
(b) Ductility
(c) Density
(d) Deformation


34. What is the characteristic strength of a concrete grade M25?
(a) 15 N/mm²
(b) 20 N/mm²
(c) 25 N/mm²
(d) 30 N/mm²


35. What does the number in the grade designation of concrete (e.g., M25) represent?
(a) The water-cement ratio of the mix
(b) The characteristic compressive strength at 28 days
(c) The weight of cement used per cubic meter
(d) The density of the concrete mix


36. Which of the following grades is categorized as high-strength concrete?
(a) M20
(b) M55
(c) M65
(d) M40


37. For concrete with compressive strength greater than M55, what should be considered?
(a) Standard design parameters
(b) Specialized literature and experimental results
(c) IS 875 design parameters
(d) Nominal mix proportions


38. Which grade of steel is classified as Medium Tensile Steel?
(a) Fe 250
(b) Fe 350
(c) Fe 415
(d) Fe 500


39. Characteristic strength of concrete is defined as the strength below which not more than what percentage of test results are expected to fall?
(a) 1%
(b) 3%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%


40. What is the specified compressive strength of a 150mm concrete cube at 28 days for grade M30?
(a) 25 N/mm²
(b) 30 N/mm²
(c) 35 N/mm²
(d) 40 N/mm²


41. Which type of steel is commonly used in reinforced concrete structures?
(a) Mild steel
(b) High strength deformed steel bars
(c) Hard drawn steel wire fabric
(d) Structural steel wires


42. What is the characteristic compressive strength of M40 grade concrete?
(a) 20 N/mm²
(b) 30 N/mm²
(c) 40 N/mm²
(d) 50 N/mm²


43. For which grade of concrete is the standard design parameters not applicable as per IS 456:2000?
(a) M20
(b) M30
(c) M55
(d) M65 and above


44. What is the main advantage of using high-strength deformed steel bars over mild steel?
(a) Greater flexibility
(b) Higher ductility
(c) Greater strength in tension
(d) Easier handling on-site


45. Which group of concrete grades is categorized as Ordinary Concrete?
(a) M10, M15, M20
(b) M25, M30, M35
(c) M65, M70, M75
(d) M40, M45, M50


46. Which of the following is NOT a type of steel mentioned in IS 456:2000?
(a) Hard drawn steel wire fabric
(b) Structural steel wires
(c) Stainless steel
(d) High strength deformed steel bars


47. What is the characteristic compressive strength of M15 grade concrete?
(a) 10 N/mm²
(b) 15 N/mm²
(c) 20 N/mm²
(d) 25 N/mm²


48. What is the grade of concrete used for structural elements requiring high compressive strength, like skyscrapers?
(a) M15
(b) M25
(c) M65
(d) M10


49. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic property of Fe 415 steel?
(a) High ductility
(b) High yield strength
(c) High corrosion resistance
(d) High tensile strength


50. Which type of steel is commonly used in structural steel frames for industrial buildings?
(a) Hard drawn steel wire fabric
(b) Structural steel wires
(c) Mild steel
(d) High strength deformed steel bars


51. What does the "Nominal Mix Concrete" refer to as per IS 456:2000?
(a) Concrete mix designed for M25 and higher grades
(b) Concrete mix with proportions specified by fixed ratios of cement, sand, and coarse aggregate
(c) Concrete mix designed for the highest strength
(d) Concrete mix with no specific strength requirements


52. Which grades are classified as "Lean Mix Concrete"?
(a) M15 and M20
(b) M5 and M7.5
(c) M25 and M30
(d) M35 and above


53. What is the nominal mix proportion for M15 grade concrete?
(a) 1:5:10
(b) 1:4:8
(c) 1:3:6
(d) 1:2:4


54. Which of the following is NOT true about "Design Mix Concrete"?
(a) It is preferred over nominal mix concrete
(b) It is economical and designed for desired strength and workability
(c) It is used for grades M5, M7.5, and M10
(d) It is determined based on laboratory tests


55. For which grades of concrete is nominal mix proportioning recommended?
(a) M25 and higher
(b) M15 and higher
(c) M20 and lower
(d) M30 and higher


56. What is the nominal mix proportion for M20 grade concrete?
(a) 1:5:10
(b) 1:1.5:3
(c) 1:3:6
(d) 1:2:4


57. Which component is referred to as "FA" in the nominal mix proportions?
(a) Coarse Aggregate
(b) Fine Aggregate
(c) Cement
(d) Water


58. What is the significance of "Design Mix Concrete" as per IS 456:2000?
(a) It provides fixed proportions of materials for all grades
(b) It ensures workability, strength, and durability in an economical way
(c) It is used only for decorative concrete applications
(d) It is less durable than nominal mix concrete


59. What is the nominal mix proportion for M10 grade concrete?
(a) 1:4:8
(b) 1:3:6
(c) 1:2:4
(d) 1:1.5:3


60. Why is "Design Mix Concrete" preferred over "Nominal Mix Concrete"?
(a) It requires less water
(b) It provides higher workability and is more economical
(c) It uses fixed proportions for all ingredients
(d) It is used only for lean concrete mixes


61. What is the Modular Ratio (m) in reinforced concrete as per IS 456:2000?
(a) The ratio of tensile stress in steel to concrete
(b) The ratio of the modulus of elasticity of steel to that of concrete
(c) The ratio of compressive strength of concrete to tensile strength of steel
(d) The ratio of concrete strength to steel strength


62. What is the formula for calculating the modular ratio (m) as per IS 456:2000?
(a) m=3σc280
(b) m=2803σcbc
(c) m=σcbc280
(d) m=EcEs


63. For M20 grade concrete, what is the permissible stress in compression in bending (σcbc)?
(a) 5.0 N/mm²
(b) 7.0 N/mm²
(c) 8.5 N/mm²
(d) 10.0 N/mm²


64. What is the equivalent concrete area when steel reinforcement is provided in the compression zone?
(a) As
(b) m×As
(c) Ac
(d) 1.5m×As


65. Why is the modular ratio used in the analysis of RC members?
(a) To determine the strength of steel reinforcement
(b) To convert the stress in steel to an equivalent stress in concrete
(c) To calculate the permissible stress in compression
(d) To reduce the strain in concrete


66. For M15 grade concrete, what is the permissible stress in compression in bending?
(a) 3.0 N/mm²
(b) 5.0 N/mm²
(c) 7.0 N/mm²
(d) 8.5 N/mm²


67. What assumption is made for strain in steel and concrete in reinforced concrete?
(a) Strain in steel is greater than strain in concrete
(b) Strain in concrete is greater than strain in steel
(c) Strain in steel is equal to strain in concrete
(d) Strain in steel and concrete are independent of each other


68. What is the permissible stress in bending compression (σcbc) for M30 grade concrete?
(a) 7.0 N/mm²
(b) 8.5 N/mm²
(c) 10.0 N/mm²
(d) 12.0 N/mm²


69. What is the modular ratio if the permissible stress in bending compression (σcbc) for M25 concrete is 8.5 N/mm²?
(a) 10.0
(b) 11.0
(c) 12.0
(d) 13.0


70. According to IS 456:2000, the actual stress in steel is equal to what in terms of the modular ratio?
(a) Modular ratio times the stress in surrounding concrete
(b) Stress in concrete divided by the modular ratio
(c) Actual strain divided by modular ratio
(d) Compressive strength of concrete divided by modular ratio


71. Which IS code provides the guidelines for different types of loads on structures?
(a) IS 456:1987
(b) IS 456:2000
(c) IS 875:1987
(d) IS 875:2000


72. What does the dead load in a building primarily consist of?
(a) Weight of furniture and machinery
(b) Weight of walls, partitions, floors, roofs, and permanent construction
(c) Weight due to snow accumulation on roofs
(d) Load caused by wind pressure on the structure


73. What is the unit weight of reinforced concrete as per IS standards?
(a) 24 kN/m³
(b) 25 kN/m³
(c) 28 kN/m³
(d) 30 kN/m³


74. Imposed loads, also known as live loads, include which of the following?
(a) Furniture and machinery weights
(b) Walls and roof weights
(c) Wind pressure
(d) Snow accumulation


75. In which regions of India are snow loads particularly considered in design?
(a) Coastal regions
(b) Plains
(c) Mountainous regions in northern India
(d) Desert regions


76. Which of the following is an example of an "Other Load"?
(a) Wind load
(b) Earthquake load
(c) Snow load
(d) Dead load


77. Which method of design considers the elastic behavior of materials?
(a) Limit state method
(b) Working stress method
(c) Ultimate load method
(d) Experimental investigations


78. Which design method is most widely used for modern structural design as per IS 456:2000?
(a) Working stress method
(b) Limit state method
(c) Ultimate load method
(d) Method of experimental investigations


79. What is the primary characteristic of wind loads on structures?
(a) They are permanent and static
(b) They occur due to occupancy of the building
(c) They are caused by very strong winds during the lifetime of the structure
(d) They are irrelevant in mountainous regions


80. What is the unit weight of plain concrete as per IS standards?
(a) 22 kN/m³
(b) 24 kN/m³
(c) 25 kN/m³
(d) 26 kN/m³


81. Which of the following loads is considered due to the effect of temperature?
(a) Dead loads
(b) Snow loads
(c) Other loads
(d) Wind loads


82. Which method of design involves the study of failure loads of structures?
(a) Working stress method
(b) Limit state method
(c) Ultimate load method
(d) Experimental investigations


83. Which load includes movable partitions in a building?
(a) Dead load
(b) Imposed load
(c) Wind load
(d) Snow load


84. Which load is most critical for designing roofs in regions of high snowfall?
(a) Dead load
(b) Snow load
(c) Imposed load
(d) Wind load


85. What are the main types of loads considered in structural design as per IS 875?
(a) Dead loads and wind loads only
(b) Imposed loads and snow loads only
(c) Dead loads, imposed loads, wind loads, snow loads, and other loads
(d) Snow loads and temperature effects only